MYCOLOGY
1.
Characteristically,
fungi:
a. Are members of the plant kingdom
b. Lack roots and stems
c. Lack chlorophyll
d. AOTA
2.
Coenocytic
hyphae is a synonym for:
a. Sepatat hyphae
b. Arthroconidia
c. Pseudohyphae
d. Aseptate hyphae
3.
Which
type of mycoses produce no cellular response by the host?
a. Deep mycoses
b. Cutaneous
c. Superficial mycoses
d. Systemic mycoses
4.
Arthroconidia
on the outside of the hair as well as hyphae within the hair shaft is called:
a. Ectothrix
b. Endothrix
c. Scutula
d. Dimorphic
5.
True
yeast produce which of the following in the asexual stage?
a. Chlamydospores
b. Favic chandiliers
c. Balstoconidia
d. Arthroconidia
6.
Septate
hyphae have:
a. No divisions
b. Divisions
c. Pseudohyphae
d. Vegatative parts
7.
Molds
with aseptate hyphae produce a specialized hyphal structure called a:
a. Conidiophore
b. Sporangiophore
c. Thallospore
d. Zygospore
8.
The
basic, branching, intertwining structures of molds are referred to as:
a. Mycelium
b. Rhizoids
c. Conidia
d. Spores
9.
Arthroconidia
are formed:
a. Directly from the hyphae by fragmentation
b. By daughter cells piching off from
portions of the mother cell
c. By knots of twisted hyphae
d. Within the hyphae
10. Mycelia within the colony that
grow into the substrate are called:
a. Aerial hyphae
b. Conidiosphores
c. Macroconidia
d. Vegatative hyphae
11. Chlamydospores that grow within
the hyphae are referred to as:
a. Spirals
b. Terminal
c. Intercalary
d. Sessile
12. Budding forms in which the
daughter cell forms as a bud from a single mother cell or forms laterally from
a mycelium or pseudomycelium are called:
a. Blastopores
b. Chlamydospores
c. Ascospores
d. Sporangiospores
13. Which of the following are the
result of asexual reproduction?
a. Arthrospores
b. Ascospores
c. Zygospores
d. B and C
14. Conidia are:
a. Asexual spores
b. Sexual spores
c. Vegetative spores
d. Asexual or sexual spores
15. Macroconidia are usually:
a. Multicellular
b. Unicellular
c. Square
d. Rectangular
16. The swollen portion of the
conidiophore is called the:
a. Spherule
b. Sporangium
c. Sterigmata
d. Vesicle
17. Which of the following statements
does NOT apply to true yeasts?
a. Ascospores are produced in the
sexual phase
b. Blastospores are the sexual
reproductive form
c. Saccharomyces is a representative
of this group
d. They exhibit thermal dimorphism
18. Conidia with rough or spiny
surfaces are described as:
a. Catenate
b. Echinulate
c. Pedunculate
d. Sessile
19. Conidia in chains are said to be:
a. Catenate
b. Echinulate
c. Pedunculate
d. Sessile
20. When preparing temporary mounts of
fungal elements, why is the slide gently heated?
a. Preserves the specimen
b. Increased the rate of clearing
c. Mounts the specimen
d. AOTA
21. Which of the following acts as a
clearing agent to eliminate debris and make fungal elements more prominent in
skin, hair, and nails?
a. Lactophenol cotton blue
b. 10% KOH
c. 70% alcohol
d. Ether
22. What is the stain in Aman medium?
a. Cotton blue
b. Methylene blue
c. Prussian blue
d. Bromthymol blue
23. Which of the following is negative
stain?
a. Periodic acid-Schiff stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Acridine orange stain
d. India ink stain
24. In the periodic acid-Schiff stain
(PAS), what colors denote the presence of glycogen?
a. Blue to green
b. Red to violet
c. Pink to red
d. Yellow to brown
25. Which of the following stains is
used for sharp delineation of fungal elements by fluorescent microscopy?
a. Gomori methenamine silver
b. Calcoflour white
c. Hematoxylin
d. Eosin
26. When the fungus wall is invisible
with the hemotoxylin and eosin stain, which of the following may be used to
re-stain the slide?
a. Acid-fast stain
b. Periodic acid-Schiff stain
c. Gram stain (Hucker medification)
d. Gomori methenamine silver stain
27. Fungal elements in the acridine
orange staining procedure:
a. Stain red
b. Do not stain
c. Stain purple
d. Fluoresces a green color
28. How does MYCOSEL medium differ
from Sabouraud dextrose agar?
a. Contains chloramphenicol and cycloheximide
b. Does not contain dextrose
c. Contains an indicator
d. Stimulates the production of
chlamydospores
29. Which fungus medium is used for
the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal cultures?
a. Sabouraud dextrose agar
b. Cornmeal agar
c. Staib’s medium
d. Rice agar
30. What is the indicator in
Dermatophyte Test Medium?
a. Methyl red
b. Phenol red
c. Bromcresol purple
d. Methyl orange
31. If 1% glucose is added to cornmeal
agar, Trichophyton rubrum can be differentiated from Trichophyton mentagrophytes
by the production of:
a. Hyphae
b. Ascospores
c. Pigment
d. Sporangia
32. Fungi should be incubated at:
a. 25-30oC
b. 10-15oC
c. 35-37oC
d. 50-56oC
33. How long should fungus cultures be
held before reporting as negative?
a. 5 days
b. 14 days
c. 48 hours
d. 30 days
34. Which of the following antibiotics
can be added to media for the isolation of pathogenic fungi from contaminated
material?
a. Penicillin and streptomycin
b. Vancomycin and nystatin
c. Cycloheximide and chloramphenicol
d. Streptomycin and nystatin
35. Which of the following media
stimulates the production of chlamydospores?
a. Brain-heart infusion blood agar
b. Czapek’s agar
c. Cornmeal agar
d. Urease test medium
36. Which of the following media
identifies species of Aspergillus?
a. Urease medium
b. Rice agar
c. Czapek’s agar
d. Ascorpore agar
37. A positive result for the hair-baiting
test is:
a. V-shaped penetration of the hair shaft
b. The production of germ tubes
c. The production of red pigment
d. The production of brown pigment
38. A tinea infection is commonly
referred to as:
a. Taeniasis
b. Ringworm
c. Pityriasis
d. Piedra
39. Which of these organisms is the
usual cause of white piedra?
a. Trichosporon beigelii
b. Microsporum canis
c. Piedraia horate
d. Malasseizia furfur
40. Tinea unguium is a dermatophyte
infection of the:
a. Nail plates
b. Beard
c. Palm of hand
d. Feet
41. The favus type of tinea capitis is
caused by which of the following?
a. Trichopython violaceum
b. Microsporum audouinii
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Candida albicans
42. Which of the following is/are
anthrophilic?
a. Microsporum audouinii
b. Microsporum canis
c. Microsporum gypseum
d. All of these organisms
43. Hairs infected with which of these
dermatophytes fluoresce under Wood’s lamp?
a. Trichophyton rubrum
b. Trichophyton tonsurans
c. Microsporum canis
d. Epidermophyton floccosum
44. Colonization by dermatophytic
fungi of the hair, nails and skin is called:
a. Mycetoma
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Phaeohyphomycosis
d. Dermatophytoses
45. Which of the following fungi
is/are cause of dermatophytoses?
a. Epidermophyton
b. Trichophyton
c. Microsporum
d. AOTA
46. Which of the following produces
macroconidia that are large, multicellular and club-shaped with smooth walls?
a. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
b. Microsporum audouinii
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Trichophyton mantagrophytes
47. Which statement is NOT true?
a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes is
urease positive
b. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
penetrates the hair shaft
c. Trichophyton rubrum is noted for its “balloon” forms
d. Trichophyton rubrum produces a red
pigment on some media
48. Which of the following produces
small, very slow growing colonies and has favic chandeliers?
a. Trichophyton tonsurans
b. Microsporum canis
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Epidermophyton floccosum
49. Which of the following is
diagnostic for chromoblastomucosis?
a. Flowerette conidia
b. Asteroid body
c. Sclerotic body
d. Germ tube
50. Which of the following are found
in the yeast phase of Sporothrix schenckii on culture medium at 37oC?
a. Sclerotic bodies
b. Asteroid bodies
c. Cigar-shaped yeast cells
d. Germ tube
51. Which of the following is the
result of an antigen-antibody reaction in cases of sporotrichosis?
a. Sclerotic body
b. Flowerette conidia
c. Sleeve conidia
d. Asteroid body
52. In order mold cultures of
Sporothrix schenckii, single conidia borne along the sides of the hyphae are
referred as:
a. Cigar-shaped
b. Flowerette
c. Asteroid body
d. Sleeve
53. Which of the following infections
is caused by dermatiaceous saprobes that invade organs of immunosupressed
hosts?
a. Phaeohyphomycosis
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Hyalohyphomycosis
d. Dermatophytoses
54. The most common cause of mycetoma
(maduramycosis) in the U.S. is:
a. Pseudoallescheria boydii
b. Nocardia asteroides
c. Rhinosporidium seeberi
d. Actinomadura madure
55. Dermatiaceous fungi have colonies
with:
a. Surface and reverse side light
b. Surface and reverse side dark
c. Surface light and reverse side
dark
d. Surface dark and reverse side
light
56. Which of the following are a
dermatiaceous fungi?
a. Sporotrichum and Aspergillus
b. Phialophora and Cladosporium
c. Penicillin and Acremonium
d. Fusarium and Paecilomyces
57. Sclerotic bodies are found in
tissue in an infection with:
a. Candida
b. Cladosporium
c. Chrysosporium
d. Coccidioides
58. Infection of chromoblastomycosis
is NOT caused by which of the following fungi?
a. Exophiala
b. Cladosporium
c. Phialophora
d. Fonsecaea
59. A fungus that grows as a mold at
35-37oC and a mold at 25oC is described as:
a. Monomorphic
b. Mycelial
c. Dimorphic
d. Eumycotic
60. True fungi that produce hyphae and
spore forms are known as:
a. Eumycotic
b. Monomorphic
c. Dimorphic
d. Yeast
61. Which of the following causes an
infection by hyaline saprobes that invade most tissues or body fluids of
immunosuppressed hosts?
a. Aspegillus
b. Penicillium marneffei
c. Fusarium moniliforme
d. AOTA
62. If you observe cleistothecia
containing ascospores, report the organism as:
a. Scedosporidium apiospermum
b. Actinomyces israelii
c. Nocardia asteroids
d. Pseudoallescheria boydii
63. The actinomycetes are best
classified as:
a. Acid-fast bacteria
b. Eumycetes
c. Funguslike bacteria
d. Opportunistic fungi
64. Which of the following is
anaerobic, gram-positive but not acid-fast and does not stain with fungal
stains?
a. Nocardia asteroides
b. Nocardia brasiliensis
c. Actinomyces israelii
d. Actinomadura madurae
65. Which of the following has a
capsule?
a. Candida albicans
b. Geotrichum candidum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
66. When culturing Cryptococcus on
Sabouraud dextrose agar, which of the following antibiotics should not be in
the medium?
a. Trimethoprim
b. Vancomycin
c. Aminoglycoside
d. Cycloheximide
67. In the direct microscopic
examination of cerebrospinal fluid, which of the following can be mistaken for
a lymphocyte?
a. Candida
b. Cryptococcus
c. Geotrichum
d. Blastomyces
68. Why does Cryptococcus neoformans
produce a brown color on Birdseed or stain agar?
a. Assimilates creatinine
b. Assimilates niacin
c. Ferments glucose
d. Ferments trehalose
69. Cryptococcus neoformans has the
following biochemical reaction/s:
a. Urease positive
b. Inositol positive
c. Nitrate negative
d. AOTA
70. Cryptococcus neoformans latex
agglutination test on spinal fluid detects cryptococcal:
a. Creatinine
b. Antibody
c. Carbohydrate
d. Antigen
71. Candida albicans produces:
a. Blastospores
b. Chalmydospores
c. Pseudohyphae
d. AOTA
72. Which of the following is another
name for oral candidiasis?
a. Ring worm
b. Thrush
c. Barber’s itch
d. Favus
73. A presumptive identification of
Candida albicans can be made by checking the ability of the organism to produce
what structure with serum
a. Blastospores
b. Chalmydospores
c. Germ tube
d. Pseudohyphae
74. Cornmeal agar plus Tween 80 is
used to identify Candida albicans through the organism’s production of:
a. Capsules
b. Chlamydospores
c. Germ tubes
d. Sporangia
75. Geotrichum candidum colonies
appear as:
a. Slow growing, dematiaceous growth
b. Rapid, yeastlike growth
c. Slow growing, violet, waxy growth
d. Rapid growing, suede-like growth
76. Laboratory workers are in no
danger when handling which form of dimorphic fungi?
a. Yeast form (tissue)
b. Hyphal form (culture)
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
77. Sepedonium produces spiny,
tuberculate macroconidia but is a:
a. Dimorphic fungus
b. Yeastlike fungus
c. Monomorphic mold
d. A and B
78. Which of the following are
produced by Geotrichum candidum?
a. Rectangular, evenly staining arthroconidia
b. Small, budding yeast cells
c. Cigar-shaped yeast cells
d. Tuberculate macroconidia
79. Which of the following is/are
dimorphic fungi?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
d. AOTA
80. The tissue phase oh Histoplasma
capsulatum, characteristically shows:
a. Pseudohyphae with blastospores
b. Yeast forms with multiple buds
c. Yeast cells within macrophages
d. Tuberculate chlamydospores
81. The characteristic structures of
the mycelial phase of Histoplasma capsulatum are:
a. Blastospores
b. Arthrospores with a germ tube in
one corner
c. Tuberculate chlamydospores
d. Yeast cells usually in monocytes
82. Leishmania can be differentiated
from Histoplasma because Leishmania has:
a. A different size
b. A different shape
c. Central nuclear material
d. NOTA
83. Which of the following tests may
be used instead of conversion when identifying dimorphic fungi?
a. Exoantigen test
b. String test
c. Immunofluorescence test
d. ELISA
84. In the mycelial form, Blastomyces
dermatitidis produces:
a. Conidiophores that resemble lollipops
b. Wide, septate hyphae
c. Broad, nonseptate hyphae
d. Delicate, branching, acid-fast
hyphae
85. A yeast form with a single
broad-based bud would identify an organism as:
a. Blastomyces
b. Coccidioides
c. Histoplasma
d. Sporothrix
86. The characteristic structures of
the mycelial phase of blastomycosis are:
a. Clusters of blastospores
b. Small pear-shaped conidia called lollipops
c. Numerous intercalary or terminal
chlamydospores
d. Spherules filled with endospores
87. Yeast-like forms with multiple
buds are characteristic forms associated with:
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Candida albicans
c. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
d. Sporothrix schenckii
88. Immature spherules of Coccidioides
are differentiated from yeast forms of Blastomyces because:
a. They produce buds
b. Their buds have a wide base
c. Their buds have a narrow base
d. They never bud
89. Which of the following fungi is a
major biohazard to laboratory personnel?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
90. The exoantigen test is a/an:
a. Indirect passive agglutination
test
b. Microscopic immunodiffusion test
c. Neutralization test
d. Rocket electrophoresis technique
91. In the exoantigen test for
Histoplasma capsulatum, which bands are present in a positive result?
a. H and/or M
b. J and/or L
c. A and/or D
d. O and/or P
92. When differentiating Histoplasma
capsulatum from Leishmania using special fungus stains, Leishmania stains:
a. Green
b. Red
c. Blue
d. Will not stain
93. Which of the bands in the
exoantigen test for Blastomyces dermatitidis is present in a positive result?
a. A
b. G
c. H
d. M
94. Which of the following fungi
produces a spherule that is filled with endospores?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Blastomyces immitis
d. Rhisopus arrhizus
95. Zygomycosis is caused by which of
the following genera?
a. Aspergillus and Rhizopus
b. Rhizopus and Aureobasidium
c. Mucor and Aspergillus
d. Mucor and Rhizopus
96. Fungal elements in Zygomycosis
show hyphae that are:
a. Broad and nonseptate
b. Broad and septate
c. Narrow and septate
d. Regular and dichotomous branching
VIROLOGY
1. A mature virus particle containing
a nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein coat, with or without envelope, is
called a:
a. Nucleocapsid
b. Genome
c. Virion
d. Capsomer
2. Viruses are characterized by the
presence of:
a. Mitochondrial DNA
b. DNA and RNA
c. Ribosomal RNA
d. RNA
3. What is the largest DNA virus?
a. Herpesvirus
b. Poxvirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Parvovirus
4. Which of the following is the
smallest RNA virus?
a. Paramyxovirus
b. Togavirus
c. Rhabdovirus
d. Enterovirus
5. What is the first step in the
replication cycle of a virus?
a. Attachment and penetration
b. Assembly of virion
c. Release
d. Uncoating
6. The virus capsid morphology is:
a. Square or round
b. Long or short
c. Ribbon-like or square
d. Helical or icosahedral
7. From what part of the virus is the
envelope acquired?
a. Nuclear or cytoplasmic membrane
b. Nucleus or cytoplasm
c. Capsomeres or genomes
d. mRNA or DNA
8. Where is the site of virion
assembly?
a. Capsomere
b. Nucleus or cytoplasm
c. Genomes
d. Membranes
9. Which of the following is a DNA
virus?
a. Retroviridae
b. Orthomyxoviridae
c. Herpesviridae
d. Paramyxoviridae
10. Which of the following is an RNA
virus?
a. Pseudomyxoviridae
b. Papoviridae
c. Herpeviridae
d. Poxviridae
11. Specimens collected for virus
isolation should be kept at:
a. 37oC
b. 20oC
c. 4oC
d. -20oC
12. At what temperature should
clinical specimens suspected of containing viruses kept for transport that
takes days?
a. -70oC
b. 37oC
c. 4oC
d. -10oC
13. In what family of viruses, after
primary infection, does an individual become latently infected and then the
infection can be reactivated?
a. Adenoviridae
b. Herpesviridae
c. Poxviridae
d. Papvaviridae
14. Cytomegalovirus isolation is best
accomplished using:
a. Monkey kidney cells
b. A549 cells
c. Human embryonic fibroblasts
d. Embryonated hen’s egg
15. Which of the following viruses
causes acute central nervous system disease in humans and animals?
a. Rabies
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. Measles
16. What specimen/s should be
collected from a patient with suspected enteroviral meningitis?
a. Stool
b. Throat swab
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. AOTA
17. Influenza A viruses can be
detected in cell cultures by:
a. Complement-fixation test
b. Hemadsorption assay
c. Immunoperoxidase test
d. Hemagglutination-inhibition test
18. The best host system for influenza
virus isolation are:
a. Monkey kidney cells and embryonated hen’s eggs
b. Monkey kidney cells and human
embryonic fibroblasts
c. Human embryonic fibroblasts and
embryonated hen’s eggs
d. Monkey kidney cells and A549 cells
19. What common antigen is
cross-reactive in all human adenoviruses?
a. Fiber
b. Hexon
c. Hemagglutinin
d. Capsomere
20. The following characteristics are
similar in both influenza and parainfluenza viruses, EXCEPT:
a. Helical symmetry
b. Lipid envelope
c. Budding from cytoplasmic membrane
d. Segmented RNA genome
21. Myxoviridae virus envelope
contains both:
a. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin
b. Lipoprotein and nonsegmented
nucleocapsid
c. Lipid and double stranded DNA
d. Hemmaglutinin and nonsegmented
nucleocapsid
22. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
are elementary bodies of the:
a. Herpes virus
b. Poxvirus
c. Poliovirus
d. Papilloma virus
23. German measles is caused by:
a. Rubeola virus
b. Rubella virus
c. Varicella-zoster virus
d. Vaccinia virus
24. What is an alastrim infection?
a. Smallpox
b. Chickenpox
c. Mild form of smallpox
d. Measles
25. Which of the following laboratory procedures
is routinely used for the detection of hepatitis B virus (HBV) in blood donors?
a. Solid-phase RIA
b. ELISA
c. Culture
d. A and B
26. Which of the following laboratory
procedures is the most rapid method for diagnosis of a virus infection?
a. Culture
b. Serological tests
c. Direct electron microscopy
d. Cytophatic effect (CPE) in cell
cultures
27. What specimen/s should be
collected from a patient with suspected influenza?
a. Stool
b. Throat swab
c. Urine
d. AOTA
28. What virus group contains a
double-stranded, segmented RNA genome?
a. Herpesvirus
b. Influenza virus
c. Parainfluenza virus
d. Reovirus
29. Enteroviruses can be
differentiated from rhinoviruses by:
a. Acid resistance
b. Size determination
c. Ether stability
d. Ribonuclease treatment
30. What virus is the most frequent
cause of gastroenteritis in children during the winter months?
a. Influenza viruses
b. Adenoviruses
c. Rotavirus
d. Hepatitis A virus
31. All of the following groups of
viruses are resistant to ether treatment, except:
a. Herpesviruses
b. Adenoviruses
c. Enteroviruses
d. Reoviruses
32. The most common method for rapid
electron microscopy examination is:
a. Negative staining
b. Acid-fast staining
c. Gram stain
d. Periodic acid-Schiff stain
33. Various virus groups can be
differentiated in negatively stained specimens by their:
a. Envelope
b. Cytoplasmic membrane
c. Morphology
d. Nucleus
