Microbiology – Parasitology
1.
Two methods which may be used to determine motility are:
a. Hanging drop and motility medium
b. Hanging drop and Gram stain
c. Motility medium and simple stain
d. Gram stain and motility medium
2.
The principle of the autoclave for sterilization is based upon:
a. Dry heat with pressure of 15 pounds at
120OC for 15 minutes
b. Moist heat at 120OC for 15
minutes
c. Moist heat at 120OC, under
pressure of 15 pounds for 15 minutes
d. Dry heat at 120OC, for 15
minutes
3.
Name in order the four ingredients of
Hucker’s modification of Gram stain:
a. Crystal violet, 95% alcohol, iodine,
safranin
b. Iodine, crystal violet, 95% alcohol,
safranin
c. Crystal violet, 95% alcohol, safranin,
iodine
d. Crystal violet, iodine, 95% alcohol,
safranin
4.
A throat swab is submitted for anaerobic culture. This specimen should be:
a. Set up immediately
b. Rejected
c. Inoculated into thioglycollate broth
d. Sent to a reference laboratory
5.
The general guidelines for collection of blood cultures state:
a.
Disinfect skin with an alcohol swab only
b.
Large amounts of bacteria are required to cause bacteremia
c.
Two to three sets per 24 hours are usually sufficient to diagnose bacteremia
d.
One specimen per 24 hours is sufficient to diagnose bacteremia
6.
In preparing blood agar plates for determining hemolytic patterns of
Streptococci, what is the first choice of whole blood?
a. Horse
b. Sheep
c. Rabbit
d. Human
7. A positive test using Simmon’s citrate agar
slants, showing alkaline reaction and utilization of citrate would be indicated
by the following color:
a. Orange
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Blue
8.
On tellurite medium, the colonies of Corynebacterium
diphtheriae are opaque, raised, convex and:
a. White
b. Cream-colored
c. Green
d. Gun metal in color
9.
Which of the following is a suitable medium for the cultivation of Brucella abortus:
a. Colistin-Irgasan-Novobiocin medium
b. Loeffler’s serum medium
c. Trypticase soy broth and agar
d. Cystine-tellurite-blood agar
10.
Glycerin-potato-blood agar is also called:
a. Bordet-Gengou medium
b. Regan-Lowe agar
c. Petragnani’s medium
d. Thayer-Martin agar
11.
Mycoplasma differ from other bacteria
in that they:
a. Are thermophilic
b. Lack a rigid cell wall
c. Are pleomorphic and more sensitive to
changes in osmotic pressure
d. Need serum for growth
12.
The term that best describes the location of flagella which entirely surrounds
the bacteria is:
a. Atrichous
b. Monotrichous
c. Amphitrichous
d. Peritrichous
13.
Which genera of bacteria form spores?
1.
Bacillus 3. Nocardia
2.
Corynebacterium 4. Clostridium
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
14.
Which of the following is NOT Gram-negative?
a. Peptococcus
b. Salmonella
c. Branhamella
d. Aeromonas
15.
The Fite-Faraco acid fast stain is different from other acid-fast stains
because it uses:
a. Hematoxylin rather than methylene blue
as a counterstain
b. Carbol gentian violet rather than safranin
as a counterstain
c. Malachite green rather than hematoxylin
as a counterstain
d. India ink with no counterstain
16.
“Medusa head” colonies are a characteristic of:
a. Erysipelothrix
rhusiopathiae
b.
Bacillus anthracis
c. Clostridium
perfringens
d.
Streptobacillus moniliformis
17.
Colonies described as “Mercury droplets” are a characteristic of:
a. Brucella
spp.
b.
Bartonella henselae
c.
Bordetella pertussis
d.
Legionella pneumophila
18.
What substance is responsible for the red pigmentation of Serratia marcescens?
a. Pyocyanin
b. Violacein
c. Prodigiosin
d. Staphyloxanthin
19.
Which of the following is a photochromogen?
a. Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
b.
Mycobacterium marinum
c.
Mycobacterium szulgai
d.
Mycobacterium fortuitum-chelonei
20.
A yellow pigment-producing organism that is oxidase positive, nonmotile and
does not grow on MacConkey agar is:
a. Acinetobacter
calcoaceticus
b.
Acinetobacter lwoffi
c. Pseudomonas
cepacia
d. Flavobacterium
meningosepticum
21.
If the negative nitrate reduction test does not change color after the powdered
zinc is added, how is it reported?
a. Positive
b. Doubtful
c. Negative
d. Do not report
22.
An organism isolated from a stool culture has the following reactions:
Gram-negative
rod TSI = K/A, no gas, no H2
Urease
negative Lysine decarboxylase
negative
PAD
negative Nonmotile
What
could be the possible organism present?
a. Salmonella
typhi
b. Proteus
mirabilis
c. Shigella
spp.
d. Citrobacter
freundii
23.
Which of the following is the reagent used for the string test?
a. Methyl red
b. Bromthymol blue
c. 6.5% NaCl
d. 0.5% Sodium desoxycholate
24.
Why should thioglycollate broth be boiled for 10 minutes before being used?
a. To drive off oxygen
b. To drive off hydrogen
c. To activate the thioglycollate
d. To deactivate the thioglycollate
25.
Any organism that is indole-positive and nitrate reduction-positive is also:
a. ONPG positive
b. Cholera red positive
c. Ornithine decarboxylase negative
d. Phenylalanine deaminase positive
26.
What is the indicator in Simmons citrate agar?
a. Phenol red
b. Bromthymol blue
c. Bromcresol purple
d. Neutral red
27.
Amino acids used in the decarboxylase test:
a. Cadaverine, putrescine, ornithine
b. Ornithine, arginine, cadaverine
c. Lysine, ornithine, arginine
d. Arginine, putrescine, cadaverine
28.
The Vogues-Proskauer test detects the production of:
a. Phenylalanine
b. Decarboxylase activity
c. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
d. Acetylmethylcarbinol
29.
The Weil-Felix is a serologic agglutination test which aids in the laboratory
diagnosis of:
a. Chlamydiae infections
b. Rare parasitic infections
c. Typhoid fever
d. Rickettsial infections
30.
A positive Simmon’s citrate test is seen as a:
a. Blue color in the medium after 24-hour
incubation period at 35OC
b. Red color in the medium after 18-hour
incubation period at 35OC
c. Yellow color in the medium after 24-hour
incubation at 35OC
d. Green color in the medium after 18-hour
incubation at 35OC
31.
Which single test best separates Klebsiella
oxytoca from Klebsiella pneumoniae?
a. Urease
b. Sucrose
c. Citrate
d. Indole
32.
What are the most appropriate screening tests to presumptively differentiate
and identify the nonfermentative Gram-negative bacilli from the
Enterobacteriaceae?
a. Catalase, decarboxylation of arginine,
growth on blood agar
b. Motility, urease, morphology on blood
agar
c. Oxidase, TSI, nitrate reduction, growth
on MacConkey agar
d. Oxidase, indole, and growth on blood
agar
33.
Cetrimide agar is used as a selective isolation agar for which organism?
a. Acinetobacter
spp.
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c.
Moraxella spp.
d.
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
34.
Which of the following is the best rapid, noncultural test to perform when Gardnerella vaginalis is suspected in a
patient with vaginosis?
a. 10% KOH test
b. 3% H2O2 test
c. 30% H2O2 test
d. All of these
35.
Which test is performed in order to confirm an infection with Clostridium botulinum?
a. Toxin neutralization
b. Spore forming test
c. Lipase test
d. Gelatin hydrolysis test
36.
The classic toxigenic strains of which serogroup are implicated in epidemic
infections of Vibrio cholerae?
a. O1
b. O2
c. O3
d. O4
37.
A positive OX-K and negative OX-2 and OX-19 in the Weil-Felix test are
associated with:
a. Rickettsial pox
b. Trench fever
c. Scrub typhus
d. Murine typhus
38.
The pH of the agar used for the Kirby-Bauer test should be:
a. 7.0-7.2
b. 7.2-7.4
c. 7.4-7.6
d. 7.6-7.8
39.
Metronidazole is most commonly recommended for treatment of infections caused
by:
a. Aerobic microorganisms
b. Microaerophilic microorganisms
c. Obligate anaerobic microorganisms
d. Obligate intracellular microorganisms
40.
Which of the following drugs inhibit folic acid synthesis?
a. Vancomycin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole
d. Isoniazid
41.
Drugs incorporated in New York City medium, EXCEPT:
a. Vancomycin
b. Colistin
c. Anisomycin
d. Amphotericin B
42.
Milk that is not adequately pasteurized may be detected by:
a. Sediment test
b. Phosphatase test
c. Methylene blue reduction test
d. Plate count
43.
In the bacteriological analysis of water, the confirmed test consists of:
a.
Demonstration of Gram-negative, non-sporulating rods from an agar slant
b.
Gas in a lactose tube
c.
Typical coliform colonies on EMB agar plates
d.
Acid and gas in lactose tubes
44.
The Gram-positive non-spore-forming anaerobic rods most frequently recovered
from blood cultures as a contaminant are:
a. Propionibacterium
acnes
b. Clostridium
noyvii
c.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Veillonella
parvula
45.
Which of the following anaerobes produce black pigment and brick red
fluorescence when exposed to an ultraviolet light source?
a. Prevotella
and Veillonella
b. Veillonella
and Porphyromonas
c. Prevotella
and Porphyromonas
d. All of the above
46.
Growth inhibition by thiophene-2-carboxylic acid hydrazide is used to
differentiate Mycobacterium tuberculosis
from which other Mycobacterium spp?
a. M.
kansasii
b. M.
bovis
c. M.
marinum
d. M.
avium-intracellulare
47.
Which of the following Mycobacterium spp.
would be most likely to grow on a MacConkey agar plate?
a. M.
ulcerans
b.
M. fortuitum-chelonei
c.
M. xenopi
d.
M. avium-intracellulare
48.
Spirochetes often detected in hematology laboratory, even before the physician
suspects the infection, are:
a. Borrelia
spp
b.
Treponema spp
c.
Leptospira spp
d. All of these
49.
Which of the following diseases can be acquired via inhalation?
a. Trench fever
b. Scrub typhus
c. Oroya fever
d. Q fever
50.
Which of the following acts as a clearing agent to eliminate debris and make
fungal elements more prominent in skin, hair and nails?
a. Lactophenol cotton blue
b. 10% KOH
c. 70% alcohol
d. Ether
51.
Which of the following are produced by Geotrichum
candidum?
a. Rectangular, evenly staining
arthroconidia
b. Small, budding yeast cells
c. Cigar-shaped yeast cells
d. Tuberculate macroconidia
52.
Which of the following organisms can be identified by its fluorescence under
Wood’s lamp?
a. Trichophyton
rubrum
b.
Trichophyton tonsurans
c. Microsporum
canis
d. Epidermophyton
floccosum
53.
Which fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal
cultures?
a. Saboraud’s dextrose agar
b. Cornmeal agar
c. Staib’s medium
d. Rice agar
54.
Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus?
a. Cottonseed medium
b. Rice agar
c. Czapek’s agar
d. Nigerseed agar
55.
Which of the following viruses causes acute CNS disease in humans and animals?
a. Influenza
b. Mumps
c. Measles
d. Rabies
56.
Which virus has been implicated in adult gastroenteritis resulting from
ingestion of contaminated food and water?
a. Rotavirus
b. Norwalk-like virus
c. Coronavirus
d. Hepatitis C virus
57.
Which technique is most widely used for the confirmation of infection with
HIV-1?
a. PCR
b. ELISA
c. Complement fixation
d. Western blot
58.
Rhinoviruses grow best at what temperature?
a. 25OC
b. 33OC
c. 37OC
d. 42OC
59.
In capnophilic incubators, CO2 concentrations should be maintained
between:
a. 1% and 5%
b. 5% and 10%
c. 10% and 15%
d. 15% and 20%
60.
Rapid methods for identifying classic infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis include:
a. Gas-liquid chromatography
b. Acid-fast smears
c. Nucleic acid probes
d. All of the above
61.
Which of the following is true about biosafety cabinet class II?
a. It filters exhausted air only
b. It supplies and exhausts air thru HEPA
filter
c. It filters recirculated and exhausted
air
d. It is only accessible through glove
ports
62.
What is the most important personal protective equipment for microbiology
laboratories performing tests for Mycobacterium
tuberculosis?
a. Carbon cartridge respirator
b. Mask
c. Gloves
d. N95 HEPA filter respirator
63.
Classification of viruses is made by:
a. Complement fixation
b. Electron microscopy
c. Nucleic acid composition
d. Cellular inclusion bodies
64.
Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven?
a. Bacillus
subtilis
b. Bacillus
stearothermophilus
c.
Bacillus thermophilus
d. Bacillus
anthracis
65.
Iodophors are composed of iodine and:
a. Detergents
b. Phenolic compounds
c. 70% alcohol
d. 95% alcohol
66.
What is the method of choice for the recovery of anaerobic bacteria from a deep
abscess?
a. Cotton fiber swab of the abscess area
b. Skin snip of the surface tissue
c. Needle aspirate after surface decontamination
d. Swab of the scalpel used for debridement
67.
Specimens for virus culture should be transported in media containing:
a. Antibiotics and 5% sheep blood
b. Saline and 5% sheep blood
c. 22% bovine albumin
d. Antibiotics and nutrient medium
68.
The proper collection of specimens for dermatophytes from the skin includes:
a.
Area cleansed with soap and swabbed with cotton applicator
b.
Area cleansed with 70% alcohol and swabbed with cotton applicator
c.
Scrape tissue with scalpel from center of infected area
d.
Area cleansed with 70% alcohol and scraped from the border with scalpel
69.
A laboratorian, properly dressed in white pants, laboratory coat, and shoes,
prepares to leave the laboratory for lunch. In addition to washing his hands,
he should:
a. Put on safety goggles
b. Remove his laboratory coat
c. Wipe the bench with water
d. Remove polyvinyl gloves and place them
into labcoat pocket for future use
70.
How does biological safety cabinet class 2A differ from BSC class 2B?
a. Class 2A exhausts HEPA filtered air into
the room
b. Class 2B exhausts HEPA filtered air into
the room
c. Class 2B cabinets are larger
d. Class 2A cabinets contain gas jets for a
Bunsen burner
71.
The helminth that induces a microcytic hypochromic anemia in its host is:
a. Strongyloides
stercoralis
b.
Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Diphyllobothrium
latum
d.
Enterobius vermicularis
72.
Which of the following nematodes are associated with heart to lung migration?
a. Necator
americanus
b. Ascaris
lumbricoides
c. Strongyloides
stercoralis
d. All of these
73.
All of these parasites are sheathed, EXCEPT:
a. Wuchereria
bancrofti
b.
Loa loa
c.
Onchocerca volvulus
d.
Brugia malayi
74.
Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by:
a. Enterobius
vermicularis
b. Brugia
malayi
c.
Ancylostoma caninum
d.
Toxocara canis
75.
Which of the following causes a chronic cough, pulmonary and artery obstruction
but no invasion of the heart in humans?
a. Canine heartworm
b. Pudoc worm
c. Dog hookworm
d. Herring’s worm
76.
What is a schistosomule?
a. Cercariae
b. Cercariae minus tail
c. Free-swimming cercariae
d. Metacercariae
77.
Examination of sputum may be necessary to diagnose infection with:
a. Paragonimus
westermani
b.
Trichinella spiralis
c. Fasciola
hepatica
d.
Wuchereria bancrofti
78.
The miracidial hatching test helps to demonstrate the viability of eggs of:
a. Tapeworms
b. Blood flukes
c. Hookworms
d. Liver flukes
79.
It the smallest but deadliest fluke of man:
a. Garrison’s fluke
b. Von Siebold’s fluke
c. Sheep liver fluke
d. Chinese liver fluke
80.
Snails with a scientific name of Oncomelania
quadrasi is an intermediate host of:
a. Fasciolopsis
buski
b.
Paragonimus westermani
c.
Schistosoma japonicum
d.
Echinostoma ilocanum
81.
Which of the following tapeworms has an unarmed scolex?
a. Hymenolepis
nana
b.
Taenia saginata
c.
Taenia solium
d.
Dipylidium caninum
82.
Cestode associated with neurocysticercosis:
a. Diphyllobothrium
latum
b.
Taenia saginata
c.
Taenia solium
d.
Hymenolepis diminuta
83.
A hexacanth embryo enclosed in a radially striated shell belongs to the genus:
a. Diphyllobothrium
b. Taenia
c.
Trichuris
d.
Ascaris
84.
Infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum
to humans:
a. Plerocercoid
b. Cysticercus
c. Embryonated egg
d. Coracidium
85.
This is considered as the shortest tapeworm which possesses only 3 segments:
a. Hymenolepis
nana
b. Echinococcus
granulosus
c.
Hymenolepis diminuta
d.
Diphyllobothrium latum
86.
This amebic cyst has an average size of 6 to 8 μm and is usually spherical.
When mature, it has 4 nuclei but immature cysts with one or two nuclei are
often seen. The nuclei have fine, uniform granules of peripheral chromatin and
small discrete, usually central karyosomes. Chromatoidal bars with bluntly rounded
ends are sometimes present. This amebic cyst is most likely:
a. Endolimax
nana
b.
Entamoeba hartmanni
c.
Entamoeba coli
d.
Entamoeba histolytica
87.
Granulomatous amebic encephalitis and keratitis are usually caused by:
a. Acanthamoeba
culbertsoni
b.
Naegleria fowleri
c.
Angiostrongylus cantonensis
d. Pseudomonas
aeruginosa
88.
In which type of malaria can Ziemann’s stippling be found?
a. Vivax
b. Malariae
c. Ovale
d. Falciparum
89.
In the laboratory diagnosis of Leishmania
donovani, which is the preferred specimen in which to find Leishman-Donovan
bodies?
a. Blood
b. Vaginal secretions
c. CSF
d. Bone marrow
90.
Steatorrhea and Gay bowel syndrome are associated with what parasite?
a. Trichomonas
hominis
b.
Chilomastix mesnili
c.
Giardia lamblia
d.
Trypanosoma cruzi
91.
Causative agent of “crabs”
a. Sarcoptes
scabei
b.
Pthirus pubis
c.
Musca domestica
d.
Periplaneta Americana
92.
The incorrect match between method and method objective is:
a. Direct wet examination and detection of
organism motility
b. Knott concentration and the recovery of
operculated helminth eggs
c. Baermann concentration and the recovery
of Strongyloides
d. Permanent stained fecal smear and
confirmation of protozoa
93.
The formalin-ether (ethyl acetate) concentration procedure for feces is used to
demonstrate:
a. Motility of helminth larvae
b. Protozoan cysts and helminth eggs
c. Formation of amoebic pseudopods
d. Trophozoites
94.
Oocysts of Cryptosporidium parvum can
be detected in stool specimens using:
a. Modified Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain
b. Gram stain
c. Trichrome stain
d. Methenamine silver stain
95.
Harada-Mori technique is used for:
a. Concentration of worm eggs in feces
b. Staining protozoal cysts
c. Culture of feces to obtain hookworm
larvae
d. Staining blood smears
96.
Quantitative estimates of worm parasite load can be obtained using:
1.
Scotch tape technique 3. Kato
technique
2.
Stoll dilution technique 4. Fecal
smear
a.
1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 2 only
97.
Which of the following is a mercury-containing fixative used to preserve
parasites in stool specimens?
a. Formalin
b. Sodium acetate
c. Buffered glycerol
d. Polyvinyl alcohol
98.
The preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the flotation
method is:
a. 1.01
b. 1.04
c. 1.18
d. 1.48
99.
The ideal temperature at which to hold a fecal specimen for more than 1 hour
is:
a. Freezer temperature
b. Refrigerator temperature
c. Room temperature
d. Incubator temperature
100.
What constitutes a positive result in the Sabin-Feldman dye test?
a. Toxoplasma
becomes nonmotile
b. Toxoplasma
can no longer be demonstrated as an intracellular organism
c. Toxoplasma
loses its affinity for methylene blue dye
d. The mouse into which the immune serum is
injected does not die from toxoplasmosis
ANSWER KEY: Microbiology –
Parasitology
1.
A
2.
C
3.
D
4.
B
5.
C
6.
B
7.
D
8.
D
9.
C
10.
A
11.
B
12.
D
13.
B
14.
A
15.
A
16.
B
17.
C
18.
C
19.
B
20.
D
21.
A
22.
C
23.
D
24.
A
25.
B
26.
B
27.
C
28.
D
29.
D
30.
A
31.
D
32.
C
33.
B
34.
A
35.
A
36.
A
37.
C
38.
B
39.
C
40.
C
41.
C
42.
B
43.
C
44.
A
45.
C
46.
B
47.
B
48.
A
49.
D
50.
B
51.
A
52.
C
53.
A
54.
C
55.
D
56.
B
57.
D
58.
B
59.
B
60.
D
61.
C
62.
D
63.
C
64.
A
65.
A
66.
C
67.
D
68.
D
69.
B
70.
A
71.
B
72.
D
73.
C
74.
C
75.
A
76.
B
77.
A
78.
B
79.
B
80.
C
81.
B
82.
C
83.
B
84.
A
85.
B
86.
B
87.
A
88.
B
89.
D
90.
C
91.
B
92.
B
93.
B
94.
A
95.
C
96.
B
97.
D
98.
C
99.
B
100. C
