HEMATOLOGY
1. Which
of the following is not an appropriate safety practice?
a. Disposing
of needles in biohazard, puncture-proof containers
b. Frequent
hand-washing
c. Sterilizing lancets for reuse
d. Keeping
food out of the same areas as specimens
2. Factors
involved with initial activation of the coagulation system and that require
contact with a negatively charged surface for their activity belong to the
following group of factors:
a. Prothrombin
group
b. Fibrinogen
group
c. Fibrinolytic
3. Factor
X can be activated by:
a. Factor
XIa
b. Factor IXa, VIIIa, PF3, Ca++
c. Factor
XIIa
d. Factor
Va and VIIa
4. Which
of the following cleaves pro-thrombin to thrombin?
a. Xa, Va, PF3, Ca++
b. IXa,
VIIa, PF3, Ca++
c. VIIa
/ TF
d. XIa
5. Activated
protein C together with its cofactor, protein S is an inhibitor of:
a. Factors VIIIa and Va
b. Plasmin
c. Thrombin
d. Plasminogen
activators
6. The
most concentrated coagulation factor in the blood is:
a. XII
b. IX
c. X
d. Fibrinogen
7. Which
of the following is requires in adequate amounts for stabilization of the
fibrin clot?
a. Factor
I
b. Factor
X
c. Factor
XI
d. Factor XIII
8. Hemophilia
B is a deficiency of:
a. Factor
XI
b. Factor
VIII
c. Factor IX
d. Fibrinogen
9. In
which of the following disease would you most likely find an abnormal pro-thrombin
time:
a. Hemophilia
A
b. Hemophilia
B
c. DIC
d. Prekallikrein
deficiency
10. Heparin
inhibits the clotting of blood by neutralizing the effects of:
a. Calcium
b. Thrombin
c. Platelets
d. Factor
XIII
11. High
molecular weight kinninogen (HMWK) and kallikrein are coagulation factors
involved in:
a. Synergistic
action with factor III
b. Activation of intrinsic coagulation
c. Induction
of viscous metamorphosis
d. Formation
of covalent bonds between fibrin monomers
12. Prekallikrein
is also known as:
a. Fletcher factor
b. Fitzgerald
factor
c. Williams
factor
d. Flaujeac
factor
13. High
molecular weight kinninogen is also known as:
a. Extrinsic
factor
b. Passavoy
factor
c. Fletcher
factor
d. Fitzgerald factor
14. In
the APTT procedure the time is taken for clot formation is measured after the
addition of:
a. Tissue
thromboplastin
b. Calcium chloride
c. Phospholipid
d. Activator
15. Which
of the following factors is not present in BaSO4 adsorbed plasma?
a. VIII
b. II
c. XII
d. V
16. The
integrity of the intrinsic coagulation system is evaluated by the:
a. Thrombin
time test
b. PT
c. APTT
d. Bleeding
time
17. The
activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is used as a screen for the laboratory
evaluation of inherited or acquired deficiencies in the:
a. Extrinsic
pathway of the coagulation cascade
b. Intrinsic pathway of the coagulation
cascade
c. Platelets
d. Vascular
system
18. A
deficiency in Factor X would affect:
a. Pro-thrombin time and activated partial
thromboplastin time
b. Activated
partial thromboplastin time and template bleeding time
c. Activated
partial thromboplastin time and thrombin time
d. Thrombin
time and template bleeding time
19. A
prolonged Stypven (Russell viper venom) time is associated with deficiency of
the following factors EXCEPT:
a. Factor
I
b. Factor
II
c. Factor
X
d. Factor VII
20. If
a patient has a prolonged PT and prolonged APTT but both are corrected by aged
plasma and serum but not corrected with adsorbed plasma, the most likely
deficiency is factor:
a. X
b. V
c. II
d. I
21. The
urea solubility test is specific for detecting deficiencies of factor:
a. X
b. XII
c. XIII
d. IX
22. A
patient has a prolonged PT but a normal APTT. What is the most likely
deficiency?
a. Factor VII
b. Factor
X
c. Factor
IX
d. Factor
V
23. The
D-dimer test is a specific test for:
a. Plasminogen
activation
b. Plasmin
degradation of fibrinogen
c. Plasmin
degragation of fibrin
d. Factor
XIII
24. Based
on the following data, what is the most likely factor deficiency?
PT normal
APTT prolonged
APTT + normal plasma correction
APTT + adsorbed plasma no
correction
APTT + aged serum correction
a. Factor
V
b. Factor
VIII
c. Factor IX
d. Factor
XI
25. The
combination of prolonged APTT and a prolonged test with the mixing study
procedures indicates the presence of:
a. Circulating
inhibitor
b. Factor
VIII deficiency
c. Anti-platelet
antibodies
d. Excessive
vitamin K
26. Which
laboratory test is specific for fibrinolysis?
a. D-dimer
test
b. Fibrinogen defeciency
c. Euglobulin
clot lysis
d. Antithrombin
III
27. An
abnormal thrombin time is associated with:
a. Factor
X deficiency
b. Fibrinogen deficiency
c. Excess
plasminogen
d. Protein
C deficiency
28. The
observation of a normal reptilase time and a prolonged thrombin time is
indicative of:
a. Presence
of fibrin degradation products
b. Dysfibrinogenemia
c. Hypoplasminogenemia
d. Presence of heparin
29. These
cells are important in the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the
lungs and body tissues:
a. Platelets
b. Leukocytes
c. Thrombocytes
d. Erythrocytes
30. Leukocytes
are necessary for:
a. Defense against foreign antigens
b. Hemostasis
c. Oxygen
transport
d. Excretion
of cellular metabolism
31. This
organ is important in maturation of T-lymphocytes:
a. Lymph
nodes
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Thymus
32. Nucleoli
of cells contain predominantly which of the following:
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. ALP
d. Peroxidase
33. The
major erythrocyte production site is the:
a. Bone marrow
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Spleen
34. The
correct maturation order of erythrocyte morphologic stages is:
a. Prorubricyte,
rubricyte, rubriblast, metarubricyte
b. Rubriblast, prorubricyte, rubricyte,
metarubricyte
c. Rubriblast,
metarubricyte, rubricyte, prorubricyte
d. Rubriblast,
rubricyte, prorubricyte, metarubricyte
35. The
earliest recognizable erythroid precursor on a Wright-stained smear of the bone
marrow is:
a. Pronormoblast
b. Basophilic
mormoblast
c. CFU-E
d. BFU-E
36. A
normal erythrocyte has a lifespan of:
a. 8.2
hours
b. 5
days
c. 28
days
d. 120 days
37. Erythrocytes
that contain a marked decrease in spectrin would most likely cause:
a. An
increase in membrane permeability
b. Methemoglobinemia
c. An
absence of MN antigens
d. Decreased
erythrocyte membrane permeability
38. Most
of the erythrocyte’s energy comes from the:
a. Embden-Meyerhoff pathway
b. Hexose-monophosphate
shunt
c. Rapoport-Luebering
d. Metheglobulin
reduction pathway
39. This
metabolic pathway facilities oxygen release from hemoglobin to tissues:
a. Embden-Meyerhoff
b. Hexose-monophosphate
shunt
c. Rapoport-Luebering
d. Metheglobulin
reductase
40. In
the red blood cell, the hexose monophosphate shunt:
a. Produces
adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
b. Produces
2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)
c. Helps prevent oxidation of hemoglobin
d. Maintains
membrane integrity
41. The
major site for removal of normal aged erythrocytes is:
a. Bone
marrow
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Spleen
42. Relative
erythrocytosis may be found:
a. In
pulmonary disorders
b. At
high altitudes
c. With
high oxygen affinity hemoglobin
d. In dehydration
43. This
renal hormone stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow:
a. IL-1
b. Erythropoietin
c. Granulopoietin
d. Thrombopoietin
44. These
pairs of chains make up the majority of hemoglobin in normal adults:
a. α2β2
b. α2g2
c. α2δ2
d. z2l2
45. A
shift to the right in the ODC (oxygen dissociation curve) occurs when there is
a/an:
a. Increase
in O2
b. Increase in CO2
c. Increase
in pH
d. Decrease
in CO2
46. The
sigmoid shape of the ODC is due to:
a. The cooperative binding of O2
by hemoglobin
b. The
Bohr effect
c. The
presence of glycosylated hemoglobin
d. Erythropoietin
47. Which
of the following is unable to bind oxygen?
a. Carboxyhemoglobin
b. Sulfhemoglobin
c. Methemoglobin
d. All of the above
48. Bite
cells are associated with:
a. Pyruvate
kinase deficiency
b. PNH
c. G6PD deficiency
d. Heredity
pyropoikilocytosis
49. Patients
with beta thalassemia major may show increased amounts of:
a. Hemoglobin F
b. Hemoglobin
C
c. Hemoglobin
H
d. Hemoglobin
A
50. Which
of the following is a pure red cell aplasia?
a. Bernard-Soulier
syndrome
b. DiGuglielmo’s
disease
c. Diamond-Blackfan anemia
d. Fanconi’s
anemia
51. Haptoglobin
may become depleted in:
a. Inflammatory
conditions
b. Acute
hemolytic anemia
c. Infectious
diseases
d. Kidney
disease
52. This
form of hemoglobin has iron in the ferric state:
a. Sulhemoglubin
b. Methemoglobin
c. Carboxyhemoglobin
d. Deoxyhemoglobin
53. Which
of the following is a cause of neutrophilia:
a. Viral
infection
b. Acute bacterial infection
c. Allergic
reaction
d. Myeloperoxidase
deficiency
54. Which
of the following findings would be most typical of severe septicemia?
a. Toxic granulation
b. Auer
rods
c. Hypersegmentation
d. Alder-Reilly
anomaly
55. The
plasma cell develops from the:
a. Basophil
b. T
lymphocyte
c. B lymphocyte
d. Monocyte
56. In
the neutrophil series of leukocyte development, the earliest stage to normally
appear in the peripheral blood is the:
a. Myeloblast
b. Promyelocyte
c. Myelocyte
d. Band
57. The
primary function of neutrophils is:
a. A
mediator of hypersensitivity
b. Control
of parasitic infections
c. Initiation
of the immune response
d. Phagocytic defense against
microorganism
58. Sézary
cells are:
a. Lipid-filled
histiocytes
b. Abnormal
plasma cells
c. Abnormal
cells in Hodgkin’s disease
d. Abnormal T lymphocytes
59. This
is the first heavy immunoglobulin chain produced in the maturing B-lymphocyte:
a. α
b. β
c. g
d. µ
60. A
peripheral blood smear that has a mixture of macrocytes, microcytes and normal
erythrocytes present can be best described by which term?
a. Polkilocytosis
b. Polychromatophilia
c. Megaloblastosis
d. Anisocytosis
61. What
is the iron transport protein?
a. Ferritin
b. Transferrin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Albumin
62. What
are DÖhle bodies?
a. Aggregates of rough endoplasmic
reticulum
b. Primary
granules
c. Fat
globules
d. Liposomes
containing partially degraded mucopolysaccharides
63. Multiple
myeloma is a disorder of:
a. T
lymphocytes
b. Plasma cells
c. Megakaryocytes
d. Erythrocytes
64. The
cells considered to be distinctive of Hodgkin’s disease is:
a. Turk’s
cells
b. Ferrata
cells
c. Reed-Sternberg cells
d. Flame
cells
65. Alder-Reilly
anomaly has effect on leukocytes that closely resembles:
a. Toxic granulation
b. Hyposegmention
c. Dohle-like
inclusion bodies
d. Hypersegmentation
66. Aleukoerythrobalstic
reaction is characterized by the presence of ___ in the peripheral blood:
a. Immature leukocytes and nucleated
erythrocytes
b. Lymphocytosis
and neutropenia
c. Leukocytosis
and erythrocytosis
d. Pseudo-Pelger
Huet cells
67. An
increased in basophils is associated with:
a. Chronic myeloproliferative diseases
b. Parasitic
infection
c. Chronic
infection
d. Administration
of glucocorticoids
68. HIV
(Human immunodeficiency virus) infects:
a. B
lymphocytes
b. Suppressor
T lymphocytes
c. Helper
T lymphocytes
d. Cytotoxic
T lymphocytes
69. A
2-year old child has a total leukocyte count of 10 x 109/L and 60%
lymphocytes. The following best describes this blood picture:
a. Absolutely
lymphocytosis
b. Relative
lymphocytosis
c. Normal lymphocyte count for a given age
d. Absolute
lymphocytopenia
70. Auer
rods are inclusions found in:
a. Myeloblasts
b. Lymphoblasts
c. Erythrocytes
d. Prolymphocytes
71. Extensive
bone marrow fibrosis, leukoerythroblastic peripheral blood and the presence of
anisocytosis with dacyocytes are most characteristic of:
a. CML
b. PV
c. ET
d. MMM
72. What
is the minimum number of bone marrow blasts needed for the diagnosis of acute
leukemia?
a. 29%
b. 50%
c. 5%
d. 30%
73. In
addition to the number of blasts, what other criterion is essential for the
diagnosis of RARS?
a. More than 15% ringed sideroblasts
b. More
than 30% ringed sideroblasts
c. Dyshematopoiesis
in all three cell lineages
d. Pancytopenia
74. The
FAB classification of a leukemia with large blasts that are myeloperoxidase and
specific esterase negative but have strong Positivity for nonspecific esterase
inhibited by sodium fluoride is:
a. M1
b. M4
c. M5
d. M7
75. The
highest levels of serum and urine muramidase are found in this leukemia:
a. M0
AML
b. M2
AML
c. CML
d. M5 AML
76. When
Auer rods (bodies) are found in blasts of a case of acute leukemia, the
leukemia is most probably:
a. Undifferentiated
leukemia
b. B
lymphocytic leukemia
c. T
lymphocytic leukemia
d. Myelocytic leukemia
77. The
normal lifespan of the platelets in the peripheral blood is:
a. 8
hours
b. 1
day
c. 10 days
d. 100
days
78. Platelet
dense granules are storage organelles for ___, which are released after
activation.
a. Calcium, ADP and serotonin
b. Fibrinogen,
glycoprotein Ib, and von Willebrand factor
c. ADP,
thromboxane A2, and fibrinogen
d. Lysosomal
granules, ATP, and factor V
79. Which
of the following is needed for platelets to aggregate?
a. Thrombin
b. Actin
c. von
Willebrand factor
d. Fibrinogen
80. Platelet
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex is:
a. Membrane receptor for fibrinogen
b. Secreted
from the dense bodies
c. Secreted
by endothelial cells
d. Also
called actin
81. The
formation of thromboxane A2 in the activated platelet:
a. Is
needed for platelets to adhere to collagen
b. Is
caused by the alpha granule proteins
c. Requires the enzyme cyclooxygenase
d. Occurs
via a pathway involving von
Willebrand factor
82. A
humoral factor which regulates platelet production by speeding up the
maturation time of megakaryocyte is called;
a. Thrombocyte
b. Thrombopoeitin
c. Interleukin
3
d. prostaglandin
83. which
of the following is true about relationship between ADP and platelets?
a. ADP
is necessary for platelet adhesion
b. ADP released from the granules is
required for platelet aggregation
c. ADP
is synthesized in the platelet from arachidonic acid
d. ADP
is released from the alpha granule of the platelet
84.
Thrombocytopenia may be associated
with all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Prolonged
bleeding time
b. Prolonged clotting time
c. Poor
clot retraction
d. Positive
tourniquet test
85.
Approximately ___ of the total
number of platelets circulate in the systemic circulation?
a. One-fourth
b. One-third
c. One-half
d. Two-thirds
86.
Clot retraction is a function of:
a. Thromboxane
A2
b. Factor
XIII
c. Thrombosthenin
d. Thromboplastin
87.
A patient with Bernard Soulier
disease will probably have:
a. Increased bleeding time
b. Increased
prothrombin time
c. Increased
platelet count
d. Abnormal
aggregation with ADP and collagen
88.
A patient with Glanzmann
thrombasthenia has:
a. A
mutation in the gene for fibrinogen
b. An
acquired abnormality of von Willebrand factor
c. A genetic abnormality of glycoprotein
IIb or IIIa
d. An
acquired vascular disorder
89.
A patient with hereditary telangiectasia
has:
a. Abnormal
platelet adhesion t collagen
b. Thrombocytosis
c. A
deficiency of platelet dense bodies
d. Dilated capillaries on mucous membranes
that are likely to cause bleeding
90.
The bleeding time is expected to be
normal in:
a. Hemophilia
b. Drug-induced
thrombocytopenia
c. Uremia
d. Bernard-Soulier
disease
91.
Platelet adhesion is abnormal in
Bernard-Soulier disease because:
a. Glycoprotein Ib of the platelet
membrane is defective
b. A
plasma factor needed for platelet adhesion is absent
c. Antibodies
to phospholipid are present
d. Abnormal
proteins in the plasma coat the platelet membrane
92.
An elevated platelet count is
associated with:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Megaloblastic
anemia
c. Myelodysplastic
syndromes
d. Immune
thrombocytopenic purpura
93.
Platelet aggregation studies
revealed normal aggregation curves with collagen, epinephrine, and ADP, but an
abnormal aggregation curve with ristocetin. Based on these findings, what is
the differential diagnosis?
a. Von Willebrand disease and
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
b. Glanzmann’s
thrombasthenia and von disease
c. Storage
pool disease and Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
d. Bernard-Soulier
syndrome and storage pool disease
94.
Bleeding disorder/s in which
platelets fail to aggregate with ristocetin:
1. von
Willebrand’s disease
2. Glanzmann’s
disease
3. Bernard-Soulier
syndrome
4. Storage
pool disease
a. 1 and 3
b. 2
and 4
c. 1,
2 and 3
d. 1,
2, 3 and 4
95.
Which of the following platelet
responses is most likely associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?
a. Decreased
platelet aggregation to ristocetin
b. Defective
ADP release; normal response to ADP
c. Decreased
amount of ADP in platelets
d. Markedly decreased aggregation to
epinephrine, ADP and collagen
96.
Platelet function is impaired after
ingesting aspirin because:
a. Aspirin
blocks certain glycoprotein receptors on the surface of the platelet
b. Aspirin
interferes with liver synthesis of a number of coagulation factors
c. Aspirin
alters the structure of the glycocalyx
d. Aspirin decreases thromboxane A2
formation by inhibiting cyclooxygenase
97.
Aspirin ingestion has the following
hemostatic effect in a normal person:
a. Prolonged
prothrombin time
b. Prolonged bleeding time
c. Prolonged
APTT
d. All
of the above
98.
Using manual techniques, the most
reproducible test of the following is:
a. Leukocyte
count
b. Erythrocyte
count
c. Hemoglobin
determination
d. Hematocrit determination
99.
Hemoglobin is measured spectrophotometrically
at which of the following wavelength:
a. 340
nm
b. 440
nm
c. 450
nm
d. 540 nm
100.
Which of the following may be
confused with reticulocytes in a brilliant cresyl blue stained smear:
a. Hemoglobin
C crystal
b. Basophilic
stipplings
c. Hemoglobin H bodies
d. Cabot
rings
101.
The degree of effective
erythropoiesis is best assessed by:
a. Serum
iron labels
b. Hemoglobin
determinations
c. Ferrokinetic
studies with Fe59
d. Reticulocyte counts
102.
Any turbidity in a peripheral blood
specimen will result in a falsely elevated hemoglobin determination. Which of
the following is NOT a potential source of turbidity?
a. Lipemia
b. Increased
leukocyte counts
c. Increased level of carboxyhemoglobin
d. Presence
of hemoglobin S
103.
The following erythrocyte data were
obtained from an EDTA-anticoagulated specimen: erythrocyte count = 2.84 x 1012/L,
hemoglobin = 7.2 g/dL, hematocrit = 26% (0.26 L/L), calculate the MCV.
a. 25.3
fL
b. 27.7
fL
c. 65.9
fL
d. 91.5 fL
104.
Which of the following is NOT a
condition associated with an elevated ESR?
a. Rheumatoid
arthritis
b. Polycythemia vera
c. Multiple
myeloma
d. Chronic
infection
105.
Which stain is commonly used to
perform a reticulocyte count?
a. Wright
stain
b. Crystal
violet
c. New methylene blue
d. Natural
red
106.
Which of the following is an
appropriate screening test for the presence of hemoglobin S?
a. Dithionate
solubility test
b. Hemoglobin
electrophoresis
c. Heat
instability test
d. Acid
elution test
107.
Which of the following does NOT
increase the sedimentation of red cells?
a. Rouleaux
b. Poikilocytosis
c. Increased
globulins
d. Low
erythrocyte count
108.
Which of the following is not
detected by the DAT with polyspecific AHG?
a. Erythrocyte
sensitization with antibodies “in vivo”
b. Erythrocyte
sensitization with incomplete antibodies “in vivo”
c. Erythrocyte
sensitization with complement “in vivo”
d. Erythrocyte sensitization with antibodies
“in vitro”
109.
The Donath-Landsteiner test is
positive in:
a. PNH
b. CHD
c. PCH
d. Warm
AIHA
110.
A positive sucrose hemolysis test
was followed by a Ham test. There was hemolysis of the patient’s cells in
acidified serum. These results are indicative of:
a. G6PD
deficiency
b. Hereditary
spherocytosis
c. Pyruvate
kinase deficiency
d. PNH
111.
The principal test in the diagnosis
of heredity spherocytosis is:
a. Autohemolysis
test
b. Ham
test
c. Osmotic fragility test
d. Thermal
stability test
112.
Which laboratory test is more
appropriate screen for unstable hemoglobulin disorders?
a. Heat instability test
b. Hemoglobin
electrophoresis
c. Osmotic
fragility
d. Serum
bilirubin
113.
The slowest moving hemoglobin on
electrophoresis at pH 8.4 is:
a. Hemoglobin
A
b. Hemoglobin
F
c. Hemoglobin C
d. Hemoglobin
G
114.
In cellulose acetate electrophoresis,
hemoglobin S has the same mobility as:
a. Hemoglobin
E
b. Hemoglobin
F
c. Hemoglobin D
d. Hemoglobin
C
115.
Which of the following hemoglobin
electrophoresis results is most typical of sickle cell trait?
a. 85%
Hb S and 15% Hb A
b. 85%
Hb F and 15% Hb S
c. 45% Hb S and 55% Hb A
d. 55%
Hb F and 455 Hb S
116.
The substance that will hasten the
sickling of erythrocyte is:
a. Sodium
oxalate
b. Sodium
metabisulfite
c. Sodium
citrate
d. Sodium
phosphate
117.
Hemoglobin S and D can be
differentiated by which test?
a. Autohemolysis
test
b. Acid
serum test
c. Hemoglobin
electrophoresis at pH 8.6
d. Solubility test
118.
Increased osmotic fragility could
be expected in which of the following disorders?
a. Iron
deficiency anemia
b. Thalassemia
c. Sickle
cell anemia
d. Hereditary spherocytosis
119.
Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions
cannot be stained and visualized with Romanowsky stain?
a. Pappenheimer
bodies
b. Howell-Jolly
bodies
c. Heinz bodies
d. Basophilic
stippling
120.
Which of the following laboratory
tests is most specific for vitamins B12 or folic acid deficiency?
a. Low
ferriti
b. High
RDW
c. Coomb’s
test
d. MCV > 105
121.
Which laboratory result is most
useful in distinguishing iron deficiency anemia from anemia of chronic disease?
a. Serum
iron
b. MCV
c. Hemoglobin
d. Transferrin receptor
122.
If a serum transferring receptor
assay were performed on an iron deficient individual, what would you expect the
result to be:
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Normal
d. AOTA
123.
The electrical impedance principle
is based on the fact that:
a. Blood
cells are good conductors of electricity
b. Blood cells are poor conductors of
electricity
c. Resistance
of the electrical path is decreased as the individual cells passes through the
aperture
d. Blood
cells have a relative density greater than that of saline
124.
B-lymphocytes can be distinguished
from T-lymphocytes by:
a. Morphology
on Romanowsky-stained smear
b. Size
of the cell
c. Monoclonal antibodies to surface
antigens
d. Presence
of granules
125.
A manual leukocyte count was
performed on an EDTA-anticoagualated specimen. The specimen was diluted 1:20
and a total of 165 leukocytes were counted in the four corner squares of the
hemacytometer. What is the leukocyte count?
a. 1.3 x 109/L
b. 3.3
x 109/L
c. 4.1
x 109/L
d. 8.3
x 109/L
126.
Chromosome analysis revealed the
presence of the Philadelphia chromosome. What myeloproliferative disorder is
present?
a. CML
b. PV
c. ET
d. MMM
127.
What cytochemical stain is used to
help differentiate a leukomoid reaction from CML?
a. Peroxidase
b. New
methylene blue
c. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
d. Perl’s
Prussian blue
128.
What cytochemical stain is most
useful in the differentiation of a myeloblast from a lymphoblast?
a. Periodic
acid-Schiff reaction
b. Acid
phosphatase
c. Myeloperoxidase
d. α-naphthyl
acetate esterase
129.
The esterase cytochemical stains
are useful to differentiate:
a. Granulocytic from monocytic leukemias
b. Lymphocytic
leukemias from myelocytoc leukemias
c. Monocytic
leukemias from megakaryocytic leukemias
d. Lymphocytic
leukemias from monocytic leukemias
130.
A leukomoid reaction may be
distinguished from chronic myelocytic leukemia by:
a. The
total leukocyte count
b. The
presence or absence of immature neutrophils
c. Chromosome
studies
d. The
presence or absence of anemia
131.
Which of the following stains is
not useful in the differentiation of acute myelogenous leukemia from acute
lymphocytic leukemia?
a. Chloracetate
esterase stain
b. Sudan
black B stain
c. Myeloperoxidase
stain
d. Periodic
acid-Schiff stain
132.
Based on the results obtained from
the evaluation of a leukocyte alkaline phosphatas (LAP) stain, what is the
total LAP score?
Cell Rating
|
Number
of Cells Counted
|
0
|
35
|
1+
|
40
|
2+
|
20
|
3+
|
5
|
4+
|
0
|
a. 65
b. 75
c. 95
d. 130
133.
The niroblue tetrazolium test would
be most useful in detecting:
a. Chediak-Higashi
syndrome
b. Infectious
mononucleosis
c. Chronic granulomatous disease
d. Niemann-Pick
disease
134.
Heterophil antibodies found in
infectious mononucleosis are absorbed by:
a. Beef
erythrocytes but not guinea pig kidney cells
b. Both
beef erythrocytes and guinea pig kidney cells
c. Neither
beef erythrocytes and guinea pig kidney cells
d. Guinea
pig kidney cells but not beef erythrocytes
