Histopathologic Techniques, Medical Technology Laws
and Ethics
1.
RA 5527 was approved on:
a. June 30, 1964
b. July 21, 1964
c. June 21, 1969
d. July 30, 1969
2.
A roster of Medical Technologist shall be prepared annually by:
a. DOH secretary
b. Secretary of PAMET
c. Secretary of the board of medical
technology
d. Secretary of PRC
3.
Violations in the Medical Technology act are listed under RA 5527, section ___:
a. 14
b. 23
c. 12
d. 29
4.
To be qualified as an examiner, one should meet the following criteria:
1.
Filipino citizen
2.
Practice of laboratory medicine for 5 years
3.
Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least 5
years
4.
Qualified pathologist
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 4
5.
Correct matches regarding council of medical technology:
1.
Chairman = CHED director
2.
Member = PAMET president
3.
Vice chairman = PRC commissioner
4.
Section 5 = Functions of the council
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
6.
Which of the following amendments of RA 5527 was approved on June 28, 1974?
a. PD 498
b. PD 1534
c. PD 498
d. PD 223
7.
No foreigner shall be admitted to examination, or be given a certificate of
registration or be entitled to any rights and privileges under RA 5527, unless
the country or state of which he is a subject or citizen permits Filipino
medical technologists within its territorial limits on the same as the subject
or citizens of said country or state.
a. Section 25
b. Section 27
c. Section 29
d. Section 31
8.
Inexcusable failure to surrender the certificate of registration within the
given time after the penalty of suspension or revocation is imposed by the
board shall be:
a.
Suspended for 2 years
b.
Punished by a fine of not less than P50,000 to not more than P100,000
c.
Imprisoned for not less than 6 years and 1 day to not more than 12 years
d.
Perpetually disqualified from the practice of medical technology
9.
In revocation or suspension of certificates, administrative investigation shall
be conducted by:
a. All members of the board with 1 legal
counsel
b. PAMET president, Chairman of the board
and 1 legal counsel
c. 1 board member, 1 PRC commissioner and a
legal counsel
d. At least 2 board members with 1 legal
counsel
10.
In places where there is no pathologist available such as in rural areas, a
medical technologist shall be supervised by a:
a. Chief medical technologist
b. General practitioner
c. Licensed physician authorized by DOH
d. Licensed physician authorized by BHFS
11.
Results that are grossly abnormal should be reviewed by one or all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. General laboratory supervisor
b. Medical director of the laboratory
c. Physician ordering the test
d. Section supervisor
12.
Proficiency testing should consist of:
a. Testing and evaluating individual
workers
b. Internal and external quality control
testing samples
c. Sending samples to a reference lab for
analysis
d. Checking all reagents for performance
13.
The Standard Operating Procedure manual should address four primary areas.
These areas are:
a.
Materials, supplies, equipment, storage
b.
Equipment, reporting results, technical methods, materials
c.
Supplies, instrumentation, equipment, materials
d.
Reporting results, reagents, clinical relevance, reference services
14.
A patient has complained to the administration that a bruise was left after a
“brutal” venipuncture. What should be done first?
a.
Ask the patient’s nurse if the patient is just seeking additional attention
b.
Ask the phlebotomy supervisor to investigate the incident
c.
Ignore the complaint, a bruise is insignificant
d.
Have the phlebotomy supervisor check the phlebotomist’s technique
15.
On repeated occasions, the day shift supervisor has observed a technologist on
the night shift sleeping. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial course of action for the day supervisor?
a. Ignore the repeated incidents
b. Advise the laboratory director
c. Notify the personnel department
d. Discuss the incidents with the
technologist’s immediate supervisor
16.
What is horizontal communication?
a.
The official communication message generated by the business activities of the
organization
b.
The formal messages that are channeled through the hierarchichal network of the
organization
c.
The activity that occurs during the normal conduct of business among
departments, managers, and staff
d.
Live discourse in which all parties exchange ideas and information and receive
spontaneous feedback
17.
Reagents that require storage between 2-6OC and are photoreactive
should be stored in a:
a. Refrigerator in a dark bottle
b. Refrigerator in a clear bottle
c. Dark laboratory cabinet sealed from
light
d. Laboratory closet in a cool location
18.
Which of the following is NOT associated with improper specimen sampling?
a. Incorrect specimen collection vessels
b. Inappropriate venipuncture site
c. Cleansing of the collection site
d. Labeling of specimen with name only
19.
A laboratory worker splashes concentrated hydrochloric acid in his/her eye. The
best safety measure is to:
a.
Wash the eye with dilute sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and call a physician STAT
b.
Wash the eye with distilled water and call a physician STAT
c.
Wash the eye with dilute acetic acid and call a physician STAT
d.
Call the physician and wait for his/her advice
20.
If an automated test instrument should be temporarily inoperable, samples for
testing should be:
a. Discarded and fresh ones obtained when
the instrument is operable
b. Kept at 37OC until the instrument
is operable
c.
Analyzed by an alternative method or properly stored until the instrument is
operable
d.
Stored in the refrigerator until the instrument is operable
21.
Clinical laboratories should be inspected
a. Twice a year
b. Once a year
c. Every 2 years
d. Every 3 years
22.
In accordance to A.O. No.: 2007-0027, which of the following laboratories
should be capable of performing routine clinical chemistry, quantitative
platelet determination, cross-matching, Gram stain and KOH?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Primary and secondary
23.
Newborn screening includes screening of all of the following disorders EXCEPT:
a. Cretinism
b. Galactosemia
c. Congenital hypothyroidism
d. None of these
24.
It refers to the process of providing an individual information on the
biomedical aspects of HIV/AIDS and emotional support to any psychological
implications of undergoing HIV testing and the test result itself before he/she
is subjected to the test
a. Medical confidentiality
b. Voluntary HIV testing
c. Post-test counseling
d. Pre-test counseling
25.
It refers to an institution or facility duly authorized by DOH to recruit and
screen donor and collect blood.
a. Blood collection unit
b. Blood center
c. Blood station
d. Commercial blood bank
26.
It is known as the Blood Banking Law of the Philippines.
a. RA 7719
b. RA 7170
c. RA 1517
d. RA 9165
27.
The PRC Modernization Act was approved on
a. December 5, 2000
b. February 13, 1998
c. January 7, 1992
d. April 7, 2004
28.
This law provides that the examination of drinking water should be performed
only in water testing laboratory duly accredited by DOH.
a. PD 223
b. AO 2007-0027
c. PD 856
d. PD 492
29.
It refers to the procedures to account for each specimen by tracking its
handling and storage from point of collection to final disposal.
a. Procedure manual
b. Chain of custody
c. Blood transfusion services
d. Standard operating procedures
30.
It refers to an individual authorized under RA 7170 who makes legacy of all or
part of his body.
a. Decedent
b. Immediate family
c. Donor
d. Testator
31.
Which of the following is the authorized body for matters concerning nuclear or
radioactive waste in the Philippines?
a. DOH
b. PNRC
c. BHFS
d. PNRI
32.
The last word in the “Panunumpa ng Propesyunal” is:
a. Bathala
b. Maykapal
c. Dios
d. Panginoon
33.
Med Tech Code of Ethics: To these principles, I hereby subscribe and pledge to
conduct myself at all times in a manner ____ the dignity of my profession.
a. Exemplifying
b. Befitting
c. Benefitting
d. Showing
34.
Who is the composer of the PAMET hymn?
a. Francis Pefanco
b. Hector Gayares
c. Ryan Cayabyab
d. Crisanto Almario
35.
Med Tech Code of Ethics: Uphold the dignity and respect of my profession and conduct
myself a reputation of reliability, honesty and ____.
a. Integrity
b. Accuracy
c. Fairness
d. Dignity
36.
Increase in size of tissues or organs due to increase in the size of individual
cells:
a. Hypoplasia
b. Hypertrophy
c. Atrophy
d. Hyperplasia
37.
Which of the following is a pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue?
a. Gall bladder
b. Cervix
c. Vagina
d. Trachea
38.
Pathology came from the ancient Greek word “pathos” meaning:
a. First rank of importance
b. Death
c. Suffering
d. To set on fire
39.
All matches are correct EXCEPT for:
a. Tumor – Swelling
b. Calor – Heat
c.
Rubor – Redness
d. Dolor – Numbness
40.
The first demonstrable secondary change after death is:
a. Circulatory failure
b. Respiratory failure
c. Post-mortem lividity
d. Cooling of the body
41.
Inflammation characterized by hypersecretion of the mucosa:
a. Fibrinous
b. Catarrhal
c. Purulent
d. Serous
42.
Liquefactive necrosis is associated with which of the following organs?
a. Brain
b. Heart
c. Pancreas
d. Spleen
43.
Edema is caused by which of the following:
a. Decreased oncotic pressure
b. Increased hydrostatic pressure
c. Protein-losing enteropathy
d. All of the above
44.
Malignant tumors of connective tissue are known as:
a. Sarcomas
b. Fibromas
c. Carcinomas
d. Adenomas
45.
Which of the following is not considered to be an acid decalcifying agent?
a. Nitric acid
b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Acid alcohol
d. Formic acid
46.
Autopsy forensic reports should be kept:
a. For 3 years
b. For 10 years
c. Indefinitely
d. For 20 years
47.
Which of the following is not a dehydrating agent?
a. Absolute alcohol
b. Benzene
c. Acetone
d. Dioxane
48.
Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:
a. 4% formaldehyde
b. 10% formaldehyde
c. 37% formaldehyde
d. 100% formaldehyde
49.
The first and most important procedure in the preparation for microscopic
examination is the choice of:
a. Fixative
b. Dehydrating agent
c. Clearing agent
d. Staining technique
50.
The angulation of the knife (clearance angle) in rotary microtome is:
a. 27-32O
b. 30-35O
c. 5-10O
d. 15-20O
51.
Type of microtome usually incorporated in the cryostat machine:
a. Minot
b. Cambridge
c. Sliding
d. Ultrathin
52.
The process of removing the burrs formed as well as polishing of the knife’s
cutting edge is known as:
a. Honing
b. Stropping
c. Oiling
d. Trimming
53.
A special method of smear preparation whereby the surface of a freshly cut
piece of tissue is brought into contact and pressed on to the surface of a
clean glass slide, allowing cells to be transferred directly to the slide for
examination:
a. Impression smear
b. Pull apart
c. Streaking
d. Crushing
54.
All of the following tests are used for the completion of decalcification
EXCEPT:
a. Physical or mechanical
b. Absorption test
c. Chemical test
d. X-ray or radiologic test
55.
The last container through which the surgical tissue sections pass through in
an autotechnicon contains:
a. Formalin
b. Alcohol
c. Acetone
d. Paraffin
56.
What is the optimum temperature of cryostat?
a. 6 to 12OC
b. -18 to -20OC
c. -160OC
d. -40OC
57.
Sliding microtome was invented by:
a. Trefall
b. Minot
c. Queckett
d. Adams
58.
The flotation water bath temperature should be maintained at:
a. 45-50OC
b. 6-10OC below the melting
point of the wax
c. Both
d. None
59.
Xylene turns milky as soon as tissue is place in it. What could be the possible
cause?
a. Incomplete dehydration
b. Incomplete fixation
c. Prolonged dehydration
d. Prolonged fixation
60.
Fixation is enhanced by:
a. Presence of fat and mucus
b. Fixing larger tissues
c. Cold temperature
d. Agitation
61.
It is the process of removing mercuric deposits from fixed tissues by immersing
them in alcoholic iodine solution prior to staining.
a. Post chromatization
b. De-zenkerization
c. Washing out
d. Post-chromatization
62.
It is a special way of preserving tissues by quenching and subsequent
dessication of fresh tissues by sublimation without the use of any chemical
fixative.
a. Freeze-substitution
b. Freeze-drying
c. Frozen sectioning
d. Cryostat procedure
63.
Airholes found in tissue during trimming is:
a. Drying out of tissue before actual
fixation
b. Incomplete fixation
c. Incomplete impregnation
d. Prolonged clearing
64.
Which one of these media is used when histochemical and enzymatic studies are
considered:
a. Paraffin wax
b. Paraplast
c. Ester wax
d. Gelatin
65.
When used as a secondary fixative, osmium tetroxide should be:
a. Used on an open bench
b. Heated prior to use
c. Combined with alcohol
d. Used under a chemical hood
66.
It involves wax impregnation under negative atmospheric pressure inside an
embedding oven to hasten removal of air bubbles and clearing agent from the
tissue block.
a. Autotechnicon
b. Elliot Bench-Type processor
c. Vacuum embedding
d. Tissue Tek
67.
This method is recommended for processing of whole eye sections
a. Wet celloidin method
b. Dry celloidin method
c. Nitrocellulose method
d. Gelatin impregnation
68.
It is an instrument equipped with a warm plate to manage the impregnated
specimen, and a cold plate at -5OC for rapid solidification of the
block.
a. Autotechnicon
b. Elliot Bench-Type processor
c. Vacuum embedding
d. Tissue Tek
69.
Which of the following matches are correct?
1.
Rocking microtome = for paraffin embedded tissues
2.
Rotary microtome = for electron microscopy
3.
Sliding microtome = for celloidin embedded sections
4.
Ultrathin microtome = for frozen sections
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
70.
Arrange the following steps in tissue processing in correct order:
1.
Mounting 6. Sectioning
2.
Labeling 7. Clearing
3.
Fixation 8. Staining
4.
Trimming 9. Dehydration
5.
Embedding 10. Impregnation
a. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5, 8, 7, 9, 10, 6
b. 3, 7, 9, 10, 5, 4, 6, 2, 1, 8
c. 3, 9, 7, 10, 5, 4, 6, 8, 1, 2
d. 3, 9, 7, 5, 10, 4, 6, 8, 2, 1
71.
Which of the following may be used to demonstrate DNA?
a. Feulgen reaction
b. Eosin
c. Pyronin
d. Prussian blue
72.
A pigment occurring in Plasmodium
parasites that is closely related to formalin pigment is:
a. Hemoglobin
b. Hematein
c. Hemofuscin
d. Hemozoin
73.
This stain is used for demonstration of neuroglia in frozen sections.
a. Toluidine blue
b. Alcian blue
c. Methylene blue
d. Victoria blue
74.
This is the simplest method of differential staining of collagen using a
mixture of picric acid and acid fuchsin.
a. Von Kossa’s stain
b. Van Gieson’s stain
c. Verhoeff’s stain
d. Masson’s trichrome stain
75.
An intermediate filament that is highly specific for myogenic tumors, including
leiomyoma and rhabdomyosarcoma.
a. Actin
b. Vimentin
c. Desmin
d. Neurofilament
76.
An intermediate filament protein used to confirm the diagnosis of astrocytoma.
a. Neurofilament
b. S100 protein
c. Glial fibrillary acidic protein
d. Neuron-specific enolase
77.
Large, polygonal squamous epithelial cells found in cervico-vaginal smears that
are identified by the presence of pale, pink-staining cytoplasm and dark
pyknotic nuclei:
a. Pregnancy cells
b. Navicular cells
c. Endocervical glandular cells
d. Superficial cells
78.
It refers to the selective removal of excess stain from the tissue during
regressive staining in order that a specific substance may be stained
distinctly from the surrounding tissues.
a. Progressive staining
b. Differentiation
c. Regressive staining
d. Metachromatic staining
79.
Best fixative for preparation of cytologic smears:
a. 95% ethyl alcohol
b. Equal parts of 95% ethyl alcohol and
ether
c. Saccomano fixative
d. Carnoy’s fluid
80.
An intermediate filament that is always positive for melanomas and schwannomas.
a. Actin
b. TTF
c. Vimentin
d. Cytokeratin
81.
Most commonly used antibody for immunocytochemistry
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgG and IgM
d. IgG, IgM and IgA
82.
In immunohistochemistry, this is the usual animal used for monoclonal antibody
production.
a. Sheep
b. Goats
c. Mice
d. Horses
83.
Aplastic anemia and bone marrow disease is attributed mostly to:
a. Xylene
b. Toluene
c. Chloroform
d. Benzene
84.
ASAP in medicine pertains to:
a. STAT
b. Statim
c. Priority
d. As soon as possible
85.
Widely used adhesive in immunohistochemistry:
a. Poly-L-Lysine
b. APES
c. XAM
d. DPX
86.
What is the main difference between Papanicolau method and Modified Papanicolau
staining method?
a. Staining time is shorter in Modified
Papanicolau method
b. Omission of Bismarck brown on Modified
Papanicolau method
c. Volume of fixative used
d. All of these
87.
An autopsy technique in which thoracic, cervical, abdominal and pelvic organs
are removed en masses and subsequently dissected into organ blocks.
a. Technique of R. Virchow
b. Technique of C. Rokitansky
c. Technique of A. Ghon
d. Technique of M. Letulle
88.
This technique of autopsy is the widely used method:
a. Technique of R. Virchow
b. Technique of C. Rokitansky
c. Technique of A. Ghon
d. Technique of M. Letulle
89.
Which of the following cells have a “honeycomb appearance” when viewed on end?
a. Endometrial cells
b. Parabasal cells
c. Endocervical glandular cells
d. Pregnancy cells
90.
It is a type of biopsy in which small pieces of tumor are removed with special
forceps
a. Punch biopsy
b. Bite biopsy
c. Wedge biopsy
d. Incisional biopsy
91.
The best way to motivate an ineffective employee would be:
a. To confirm low performance with
subjective data
b. To set short-term goals for the employee
c. Transfer the employee to another
department
d. Ignore failure to meet goals
92.
The process by which an agency or organization uses predetermined standards to
evaluate and recognize a program of study in an institution is called:
a. Regulation
b. Licensure
c. Accreditation
d. Credentialing
93.
Cytological picture conclusive of malignancy:
a. Class II
b. Class III
c. Class IV
d. Class V
94.
Which of the following terms is used to identify a chemical that causes birth
defects?
a. Mutagen
b. Teratogen
c. Carcinogen
d. Reactive
95.
A medical technologist is not allowed by law to:
a. Head a clinical laboratory
b. Supervise another medical technologist
c. Supervise a section of the clinical
laboratory
d. Own a clinical laboratory
96.
One of the following is not a practice of medical technology:
a. Be a phlebotomist in a medical
institution
b. Supervise medical technology interns
c. Interpret laboratory results
d. Perform special test in clinical
chemistry
97.
Guidelines for the accreditation of clinical laboratories involved in the
training of medical laboratory science/ medical technology interns is:
a. CMO No. 6, s. 2008
b. CMO No. 14, s. 2006
c. CMO No. 6, s. 2006
d. CMO No. 14, s. 2008
98.
Histologic examination shows koilocytosis, which results from infection with:
a. Adenovirus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Herpes simplex virus
d. Human papillomavirus
99.
Incorrect match regarding specimen retention:
a. Blood bank donor and recipient specimens
= 7 days post-transfusion
b. Pathology blocks = 10 years
c. Serum and other body fluids = 72 hours
d. Clinical pathology laboratory reports =
2 years
100.
The turnover of results for frozen sections should be within:
a. 24 hours
b. 5-15 minutes
c. 1 week
d. 3 days
ANSWER
KEY: HTMLE
1.
C
2.
C
3.
D
4.
B
5.
B
6.
A
7.
B
8.
D
9.
D
10.
C
11.
C
12.
B
13.
B
14.
B
15.
D
16.
C
17.
A
18.
C
19.
B
20.
C
21.
C
22.
B
23.
D
24.
D
25.
A
26.
C
27.
A
28.
C
29.
B
30.
D
31.
D
32.
C
33.
B
34.
B
35.
A
36.
B
37.
D
38.
C
39.
D
40.
D
41.
B
42.
A
43.
D
44.
A
45.
C
46.
C
47.
B
48.
C
49.
A
50.
C
51.
A
52.
B
53.
A
54.
B
55.
D
56.
B
57.
D
58.
C
59.
A
60.
D
61.
B
62.
A
63.
C
64.
D
65.
D
66.
C
67.
B
68.
D
69.
B
70.
C
71.
A
72.
D
73.
D
74.
B
75.
C
76.
C
77.
D
78.
B
79.
B
80.
C
81.
A
82.
C
83.
D
84.
D
85.
A
86.
B
87.
D
88.
A
89.
C
90.
B
91.
B
92.
C
93.
D
94.
B
95.
A
96.
C
97.
A
98.
D
99.
C
100. B
