CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

Specimen collection and processing is under which part of the quality assurance program?

Pre-analytical
Analytical
Post-analytical
None of the above

Mechanical hazards are caused by:

Centrifuges
Refrigerators
Both
Neither

What kind of quality control is important in maintaining long term accuracy of the analytical methods?

Internal quality control
External quality control
Sensitivity
Specificity

In statistics, this is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data.

Mean
Median
F-test
T-test

It is a sample of known quantity with several analytes present.

Calibrator
Reagent
Standard
Control

This is the most widely used quality control chart in the clinical laboratory.

Gaussian Curve
Cumulative Sum Graph
Youden/Twin Plot
Levey-Jennings Chart

This type of error which can be observed on a Levey-Jennings chart is formed control values that distribute themselves on one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive days.

Trend
Shift
Outliers
None of the above

The independent variable is plotted along the:

Horizontal axis
Vertical axis
Y-axis
Ordinate

A value of 11.2 mg/dL thyroxine is equivalent to ___ in SI units.

135 nmol/L
135 mmol/L
145 nmol/L
145 mmol/L

Convert 4.5 g/dL albumin to SI units:

a. 45 g/L

b. 90 g/L

c. 0.45 g/L

d. 0.45 g/L

What is the conversion for bilirubin from conventional (mg/dL) to SI (mmol/L) unit?

a. 17.1

b. 0.357

c. 88.4

d. 0.0113

What anticoagulant is used for cardiopulmonary bypass?

a. EDTA

b. Heparin

c. Citrate

d. Oxalate

Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at a rate of ___ mg/dl/hour and at 4^oC, the loss is approximately ___ mg/dl/hour.

a. 2, 7

b. 3, 8

c. 8, 3

d. 7, 2

Whole blood fasting glucose level is ___ than in serum or plasma.

a. 10-15% lower

b. 5-10% lower

c. 10-15% higher

d. 5-10% higher

The glycated hemoglobin value represents the blood glucose value during the preceding:

a. One to three weeks

b. Three to six weeks

c. Two to three weeks

d. Eight to twelve weeks

Apolipoprotein B-100 is the primary component of:

a. VLDL

b. LDL

c. IDL

d. HDL

Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) and Lipoprotein a (are) considered as:

a. Major lipoproteins

b. Minor lipoproteins

c. Abnormal lipoproteins

d. Fatty acids

What age group has a moderate risk cut off value of >240 mg/dl and high risk cut off value of >260 mg/dl for total cholesterol?

a. 2-19 years old

b. 20-29 years old

c. 30-39 years old

d. 40 years old and over

According to the NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable Measurement Error, the coefficient of variation for HDL cholesterol should be on what range?

a. < 2%

b. < 3%

c. < 4%

d. < 5%

This is considered as a one-step method for cholesterol determination:

a. Liebermann-Burchardt

b. Abell-Kendall

c. Schoenheimer Sperry

d. Bloors

Cholesterol esterase is used in which method/s for chelesterol determination?

a. Chemical methods

b. Enzymatic methods

LDL can be calculated from measurements of the following except: ___ by the Friedewald formula:

a. Total cholesterol

b. VLDL

c. HDL

d. Triglyceride

Which method for the assay of uric acid is simple and nonspecific?

a. Colorimetric: kinetic

b. Colorimetric: end point

c. Enzymatic: UV

d. Enzymatic: H₂O₂

This approach to the assay for urea nitrogen has a greater specificity and more expensive.

a. Colorimetric: diacetyl

b. Caraway

c. Kinetic

d. Enzymatic: NH₃ formation

The most simple method for creatinine determination but is nonspecific is:

a. Colorimetric: end point

b. Colorimetric: kinetic

c. Enzymatic: UV

d. Enzymatic: H₂O₂

Proteins that migrate in the alpha-2 globulin band in serum protein electrophoresis except:

a. Transferring

b. Haptoglobin

c. AMG

d. Ceruloplasmin

This condition shows a beta-gamma bridging effects as the serum protein electrophoretic pattern:

a. Multiple myeloma

b. Nephrotic syndrome

c. Hepatic cirrhosis

d. Pulmonary emphysema

In hemolytic disease of the newborn, which form of bilirubin is elevated in plasma?

a. Conjugated bilirubin

b. Unconjugated bilirubin

c. Delta bilirubin

d. B and C

Creatine kinase is under what enzyme category?

a. Oxidoreductases

b. Hydrolases

c. Lyases

d. Transferases

It is the only enzyme whose clinical significance is not increased, but decreased levels.

a. Pseudocholinesterase

b. Ceruloplasmin

c. 5’ Nucleotidase

d. Glucose-6-Phospate Dehydrogenase

For each degree of fever in the patient, pO₂ will fall ___ & pCO₂ will rise ___%.

a. 7,3

b. 3,7

c. 2,5

d. 5,2

Confirmatory test for acromegaly:

a. Physical activity test

b. Insulin tolerance test

c. Somatomedin C

d. Glucose suppression test

It is the most potent of the estrogens.

a. Estriol

b. Estrone

c. Estradiol

d. Testradiol

An individual with hyperthyroidism will manifest ___ triglyceride levels.

a. Increased

b. Decreased

An individual with hypothyroidism will manifest ___ T3 uptake levels.

a. Increased

b. Decreased

This tumor marker is helpful in the diagnosis of urinary bladder cancer:

a. CA 19-9

b. Calcitonin

c. HER-2/neu

d. NMP

The primary product of hepatic metabolism of cocaine is:

a. Morphine

b. NAPA

c. Benzoylecgonine

d. Primidone

Which of the following drugs is a barbiturate?

a. Cyclosporine

b. Methotrexate

c. Phenobarbital

d. Acetaminophen

The signs and symptoms of this blood alcohol level in %w/v are mental confusion, dizziness and strongly impaired motor skills (staggering, slurred speech).

a. 0.09-0.25

b. 0.18-0.30

c. 0.27-0.40

d. 0.35-0.50

This pipette, commonly used in laboratories, is the considered the most basic pipette.

a. Automatic pipette

b. Air displacement pipette

c. Glass pipette

d. Positive displacement pipette

The BMI of an obese individual in kg/m² is:

a. 18.5

b. 25

c. 29.9

d. 30

Which of the following is true about Fahey and McKelvey method?

a. Kinetic method

b. Measured after 18 hours

c. Diameter = log of concentration

d. All of the above

Which correctly describes when there is damaged in the epithelium?

a. Increased AST

b. Increased ALT

c. Direct bilirubin ratio to total bilirubin is greater than 1:2

d. Increased CK

Which correctly describes when there is decreased in the potency of the biliary epithelium?

a. Increased AST

b. Increased ALT

c. Direct bilirubin ratio to total bilirubin is greater than 1:2

d. Increased CK

Which test are routinely used to asses the kidney function (Dean Rodriguez’s Lectures)

a. K and crea

b. Na and crea

c. Cl and urea

d. K and urea

Which enzyme has a moderate specificity for heart, liver and skeletal muscle?

a. AST

b. LDH

c. ALT

d. CK

Who can perform POCT for glucose?

a. Med Techs only

b. Nurses

c. Non-lab personnel and diabetic patients

d. All of the above

Considered as the risk factor for coronary heart disease

a. HDL

b. Triglycerides

c. Cholesterol

d. Phospholipids

Physician asks in asymptomatic DM patients

a. History of vascular disease

b. History of insulin resistance

c. Hypertension

d. All of the above

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

1. Nomarski and Hoffman are example of what microscopy?

a. Phase contrast microscopy

b. Darkfield microscopy

c. Brightfield microscopy

d. Fluorescent microscopy

2. Degree of Hazard: 3

a. Slight Hazard

b. Moderate Hazard

c. Extreme Hazard

d. Serious Hazard

3. The best aid for chemical spills is flushing the area with large amounts of water for at least ___ minutes then seek medical attention.

a. 15

b. 20

c. 25

d. 30

4. Arsenal fire:

a. Type A fire

b. Type C fire

c. Type E fire

d. Type F fire

5. Urine samples should be examined within one hour of voiding because:

a. RBC, leukocytes and casts agglutinate on standing for several hours at room temperature

b. Urobilinogen and bilirubin increased after prolonged exposure to light

c. Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of urine

d. Ketones will increased due to bacterial and cellular metaboliam

6. The urine volume of a patient with oliguria is usually:

a. 1,200-1,500 mL

b. > 2,500 mL

c. < 400 mL

d. < 700 mL

7. The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:

a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic

b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen

c. After addition of salicylic acid

d. After the specimen cools to room temperature

8. Urine clarity grading: “Few particulates, print easily seen through urine”

a. Clear

b. Hazy

c. Cloudy

d. Turbid

9. Which method for the determination of urine specific gravity is based on refractive index?

a. Total solids meter

b. Hydrometer

c. Reagent strip

d. Harmonic oscillation densitometry

10.Urine reagent strips should be stored in a/an:

a. Incubator

b. Cool dry place

c. Refrigerator

d. Freezer

11.Reading time: 30 seconds

a. Bilirubin

b. Ketones

c. Specific gravity

d. pH

12.The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:

a. Albumin

b. Bence Jones protein

c. Mucoprotein

d. Globulin

13.Bence Jones Protein is characterized by its unique ability to coagulate at ___ and dissolve at ___.

a. 30-50^oC : 80-100^oC

b. 40-50^oC : 80-90^oC

c. 50-60^oC : 90-100^oC

d. 40-50^oC : 80-100^oC

14.SSA turbidity: “Turbidity with granulation, no flocculation”

a. 1+

b. 2+

c. 3+

d. 4+

15.The parameter in the reagent strip which utilizes Ehrlich units is:

a. Bilirubin

b. Urobilinogen

c. Glucose

d. Leukocytes

16.Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units.

a. 0.4

b. 4

c. 40

d. 400

17.Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine reagent strip?

a. Blood

b. Bilirubin

c. Leukocytes

d. All of the choices

18.Soluble in ether, except:

a. Red blood cells

b. Lipids

c. Chyle

d. Lymphatic fluid

19.Soluble in dilute acetic acid, except:

a. Red blood cells

b. Amorphous phosphates

c. Calcium carbonates

d. White blood cells

20.Ascending sequence of casts:

a. Waxy-hyaline-coarsely granular-finely granular-cellular

b. Coarsely granular-finely granular-hyaline-waxy-cellular

c. Hyaline-cellular-coarsely granular-finely granular-waxy

d. Cellular-hyaline-finely granular-coarsely granular-waxy

21.Normal urinary crystal which is colorless, resembling flat plates or thin prisms often in rosette form:

a. Amorphous phosphates

b. Struvite

c. Apatite

d. Calcium carbonate

22.If alcohol is added to urine with tyrosine crystals, this other type of abnormal crystal may be precipitated:

a. Bilirubin

b. Sulfonamide

c. Leucine

d. Cystine

23.Manner of reporting for RTE cells:

a. Average number per LPF

b. Average number per HPF

c. Average number per OIO

d. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+

24.Transitional epithelial cells seen in urine specimens may be reported using rare/few/moderate/many by using the:

a. Scanner field

b. Low power field

c. High power field

d. Oil immersion field

25.In a urine specimen, ten calcium oxalate crystals were seen per high power field (HPF). How do you report the findings?

a. Rare

b. Few

c. Moderate

d. Many

26.In a urine specimen, nine bacteria were seen per high power field (HPF). How do you report the finding?

a. Rare

b. Few

c. Moderate

d. Many

27.Most frequent parasite encountered in the urine:

a. Schistosoma haematobium

b. Enterobius vermicularis

c. Trichomonas vaginalis

d. Giardia lamblia

28.A renal calculi described as very hard, dark in color with rough surface:

a. Calcium oxalate

b. Uric acid

c. Cystine

d. Phosphate

29.Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to glomerular and alveolar basement membranes:

a. Berger’s disease

b. Wagener’s granulomatosis

c. Goodpasture syndrome

d. Membranous glomerulonephritis

30.The sperm acrosomal cap should encompass approximately ___ of the head and covers approximately ___ of the nucleus.

a. One half, two-thirds

b. One third, one half

c. Two-thirds, one fourth

d. One fourth, one third

31.Sperm motility grading: “Slower speed, some lateral movement”

a. 4.0

b. 3.0

c. 2.0

d. 1.0

32.Reagent/s used for the assessment of sperm viability:

a. Papanicolau

b. Wright’s

c. Giemsa

d. Eosin-Nigrosin

33.Computer-Assisted Semen Analysis (CASA) is used to determine sperm cell:

a. Vertical movement

b. Lateral movement

c. Circular movement

d. Velocity and trajectory

34.Florence test, which choline, uses which reagent?

a. Potassium iodide

b. Picric acid

c. Trichloroacetic acid

d. Silver nitroprusside

35.Pellicle clot formation after 12-24 hours refrigeration of cerebrospinal fluid:

a. Bacterial meningitis

b. Viral meningitis

c. Tubercular meningitis

d. Fungal meningitis

36.Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not in serum, except:

a. Multiple myeloma

b. Encephalitis

c. Neurosyphilis

d. Guillain-Barre disease

37.Normal synovial fluid glucose should not be more than ___ mg/dL lower than the blood value.

a. 5

b. 10

c. 15

d. 20

38.Cell which could be seen in synovial fluid resembles polished rice macroscopically:

a. Ragocytes

b. Cartilage cells

c. Rice bodies

d. Reiter cell

39.The normal color of gastric fluid is

a. Colorless

b. Green

c. White

d. Gray

40.What reagent is used for the APT test?

a. Hydrochloric acid

b. Sodium hydroxide

c. Sulfuric acid

d. Potassium hydroxide

HEMATOLOGY

1. Length of needle usually used in routine phlebotomy:

a. 0.5-1.0 inch

b. 1.0-1.5 inches

c. 1.5-2.0 inches

d. 2.0-2.5 inches

2. In preparing a blood smear, the distance of the drop of blood from the label or end of the slide should be:

a. 1.0 cm

b. 2.0 cm

c. 3.0 cm

d. 4.0 cm

3. After staining a blood smear, the RBCs appeared bluish when viewed under the microscope. The following are possible causes, except:

a. Stain of buffer is too basic

b. Inadequate rinsing

c. Inadequate buffering

d. Heparinized blood was used

4. Macrocytes: 25-50%

a. 1+

b. 2+

c. 3+

d. 4+

5. Codocytes: 41 per oil immersion field

a. 1+

b. 2+

c. 3+

d. 4+

6. Stomatocytes: 15 per oil immersion firld

a. 1+

b. 2+

c. 3+

d. 4+

7. 12 RBCs with basophilic stippling were seen on a blood smear. How do report this finding?

a. Positive

b. Rare, few, moderate, many

c. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+

d. average number / OIO

8. Hypochromia grading: “Area of pallor is two-thirds of cell diameter”

a. 1+

b. 2+

c. 3+

d. 4+

9. Polychromasia grading: 1+

a. 1%

b. 3%

c. 5%

d. 10%

10.How many platelets per oil immersion field should be observed in order to evaluate normal platelet number in an appropriate area of a blood smear?

a. 4-10

b. 6-15

c. 8-20

d. 10-30

11.Hematopoietic stem cell marker:

a. CD10

b. CD34

c. CD35

d. CD56

12.Capillary tube:

a. Length: 11.5 cm Bore: 3.0 mm

b. Length: 30.0 cm Bore: 2.6 mm

c. Length: 7.0 cm Bore: 1.0 mm

13.Third layer in the examination of spun hematocrit;

a. Plasma

b. Buffy coat

c. Fatty layer

d. Packed red cells

14.If the RBC count of a patient is 5.0 x 10¹²/L, what is the approximate hemoglobin value?

a. 12 g/dL

b. 14 g/dL

c. 15 g/dL

d. 20 g/dL

15.MCHC: 28 g/dL

a. Outside reference range and considered normal

b. Within reference range and considered normal

c. Outside reference range and considered abnormal

d. Within reference range and considered abnormal

16.Which of the erythrocyte indices is not used in the classification of anemia?

a. MCV

b. MCHC

c. MCH

17.Normocytic and normochronic anemia is usually seen in patients with ___.

a. Iron deficiency anemia

b. Aplastic anemia

c. Thalassemia

d. Anemia of chronic disease

18.What is the primary cause of death in patients with sickle cell media anemia?

a. Aplastic crises

b. Infectious crises

c. Vaso-occlusive crises

d. Bleeding

19.Effect of multiple myeloma on ESR:

a. Markedly increased

b. Moderately increased

c. Normal decreased

20.A manual WBC count was performed on a hemacytometer and 15,000 WBC/mL were counted. When the differential count was performed, the medical technologist counter 20 NRBC per 100 total WBC. Calculate the corrected WBC count.

a. 10,000 WBC/mL

b. 11,500 WBC/mL

c. 12,000 WBC/mL

d. 12,500 WBC/mL

21.If the white count is markedly elevated, in which it may be as high as 100 to 300 x 10⁹/L, a ___ dilution is used.

a. 1:10

b. 1:100

c. 1:200

d. 1:250

22.How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when the WBC count is below 1.0 x 10⁹/L?

a. 50

b. 100

c. 150

d. 200

23.A 200-cell count may be performed when the differential shows the following abnormal distribution, except:

a. Over 10% eosinophils

b. Below 2% basophils

c. Over 11% monocytes

d. More lymphocytes than neutrophils except in children

24.Which of the following cells could be seen in lesions of mycosis fungoides?

a. T lymphocytes

b. B lymphocytes

c. Monocytes

d. Neutrophils

25.Fresh blood smears made from capillary blood are used for this cytochemical stain:

a. Sudan Black B

b. Chloroacetate esterase

c. Periodic Acid Schiff

d. Peroxidase

26.Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia:

a. Mauve lavender

b. Chocolate brown

c. Cherry red

d. Bright red

27.In hemoglobin C, glutamic acid on the 6^th position of beta chain is replaced by which amino acid?

a. Lysine

b. Valine

c. Arginine

d. Glutamine

28.Five-part differential:

a. Granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, platelets, erythrocytes

b. Immature cells, inclusions, erythrocytes. Leukocytes, platelets

c. Platelets, band cells, granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes

d. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

29.Negative instrumental error:

a. Bubbles in the sample

b. Extraneous electrical pulses

c. Aperture plugs

d. Excessive RBC lysis

30.In an automated instrument, this parameter is calculated rather than directly measured:

a. RBC count

b. WBC count

c. Hemoglobin

d. Hematocrit

31.Side angel scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used to measure:

a. Cell size

b. Cell number

c. Cytoplasmic granularity

d. Antigenic identification

32.Number of platelet stages:

a. Six

b. Seven

c. Eight

d. Nine

33.Stage in the megakaryocytic series where thrombocytes are visible:

a. Metamegakaryocyte

b. Megakaryocyte

c. Promegakaryocyte

d. Megakaryoblast

34.Platelet estimate: 100,000-149,000

a. Low normal

b. Slight normal

c. Normal

d. Moderate decrease

35.Normal value for template bleeding time:

a. 3-6 minutes

b. 6-10 minutes

c. 2-4 minutes

d. 7-15 minutes

36.Condition in which blood escaped into large areas of skin and mucous membranes, but not into deep tissues:

a. Petachiae

b. Purpura

c. Ecchymosis

d. Hematoma

37.This is one of the coagulation factors which is activated in cold temperatures:

a. III

b. V

c. VII

d. IX

38.Similarity of factors V and VIII:

a. Vitamin-K dependent factors

b. Present in serum

c. Included in contact family of coagulation proteins

d. Labile factors

39.Euglobulin clot lysis time:

a. Screening test

b. Confirmatory test

c. Other test

d. None of these

40.Visual detection of fibrin clot formation:

a. Fibrometer

b. Electra 750

c. Coag-A-Mate X2

d. Tilt tube

41.Concentration of fibrinogen (mg/dL) that will affect PT and PTT tests? (Per)

a. 75

b. 100

c. 200

d. 400

42.First factor affected by Coumarin is:

a. VII

b. X

c. VIII

d. HMWK

HISTOTECHNIQUES AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS

1. Panunumpa ng Propesyunal: Ako, si (Pangalan) ng (_____) ay taimtim na nanunumpa…

a. Tirahan

b. Paaralan

c. Bansa

d. Kurso

2. Cursing a co-worker which part of the code of ethics?

a. Share my knowledge and expertise with my colleagues

b. Restrict my praises, criticisms, views and opinions within constructive limits.

c. Treat any information I acquire in the course of my work as strictly confidential

d. Contribute to the advancement of the professional organization and other allied health organizations.

3. Non-biodegradable wastes are contained in ___ -colored bags:

a. Black

b. Yellow

c. Red

d. Orange

4. Stat means:

a. Immediately

b. As soon as possible

c. Now

d. None of these

5. It is a general purpose fixative.

a. Mercuric chloride

b. Acetone

c. Chromate

d. 10% neutral buffered formalin

6. Clearing is also known as:

a. Dealcoholization

b. Dehydration

c. Infiltration

d. Embedding

7. In double embedding, the tissue is first infiltrated with ___, followed by embedding with ___.

a. Celloidin > Paraffin

b. Paraffin > Celloidin

c. Celloidin > Gelatin

d. Paraffin > Gelatin

8. Most rapid embedding technique:

a. Manual

b. Vacuum

c. Automatic

d. None of the choices

9. He invented the Cambrides microtome:

a. Minot

b. Adams

c. Trefall

d. Queckett

10.The following characterizes honing except:

a. Heel to toe

b. Removal of nicks

c. Knife sharpening

d. Uses paddle made of horse leather

11.Polyclonal antibodies used in immunohistochemical techniques are derived from:

a. Rabbit

b. Goat

c. Pig

d. Mice

12.Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC), which is ___ in color, is a common chromogen for peroxidases which should be made fresh immediately before use.

a. Red

b. Brown

c. Orange

d. Pink

13.It is a surgical connection between two structures. It usually means a connection that is created between structures, such as blood vessels or loops of intestine.

a. Anastomosis

b. Network

c. Matrix

d. Reticulum

14.In an anatomic procedure, the prosector is the:

a. Pathologist

b. Medical technologist

c. Assistant

d. Patient

15.This anatomic site for gynecologic samples is used for the detection of endocervical lesions or intrauterine lesions.

a. Upper third of the vaginal wall

b. Ectocervix

c. Endocervix

d. Vulva

16.Instruments used in obtaining cervical samples for Papanicolau smear, except:

a. Glass pipette

b. Ayre’s spatula

c. Laryngeal cannula

d. Syringe

17.Which of the following is used for embedding EM Sections?

a. Epon

b. Araldite

c. Tissuemat

d. Paraplast

IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY & BLOOD BANKING

He was said to have been given the world’s first blood transfusion by his Jewish physician Giacomo di San Genesio, who had him drink the blood of three 10-year-old boys.

Pope Innocent VII
Pope Pius I
Pope Gregory III
Pope Boniface IV

The number of H antigen structures currently identified are:

Two
Four
Six
Eight

Greatest amount of H antigen:

A₁
O
AB
B

Identify the blood type based on the following reactions:

FORWARD GROUPING		REVERSE GROUPING
Anti-A	Anti-B	A cells	B cells
O	4+	3+	O

Type O
Type A
Type B
Type AB

Bombay phenotype antibodies include:

Anti-A
Anti-B
Anti-H
All of the choices

What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient’s sample?

O Rh-negative, whole blood
O Rh-positive, whole blood
O Rh-negative, pRBCs
O Rh-positive, pRBCs

This blood group is an anthropological marker in Asian ancestry:

Diego
Cartwright
Colton
Gerbich

The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic environment.

Anti-S
Anti-U
Anti-N
Anti-M

Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained through open system with ACD anticoagulant:

21 days
35 days
42 days
None of the choices

Indication for transfusion of neocytes:

a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

b. Hemolytic transfusion reaction

c. Thalassemia

d. Hydrops fetalis

Citrate in ACD functions as:

a. Anticoagulant

b. ATP source

c. RBC membrane stabilizer

d. Caramelization inhibitor

The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:

a. Whole blood

b. Packed red blood cells

c. Leukocyte concentrates

d. Platelets concentrates

Major advantage of gel technology:

a. Decreased sample volume

b. Improved productivity

c. Enhanced sensitivity

d. Standardization

Agglutination reaction: “Several large clumps with clear background”

a. 4+

b. 3+

c. 2+

d. 1+

This type of autologous donation occurs when blood is collected from the patient before the start of surgery. The patient’s blood volume is returned to normal with fluids, and autologous blood may be returned to the patient after the surgery is complete.

a. Preoperative

b. Normovolemic hemodilution

c. Intraoperative salvage

d. Postoperative salvage

The anticoagulant preferred in direct antiglobulin testing is:

a. EDTA

b. Heparin

c. Citrate

d. Oxalate

A donor was deferred by the physician due to the presence of bluish purple areas under the skin of the donor. This is typical of:

a. Syphilis

b. Herpes simplex

c. Candidiasis

d. Kaposi’s sarcoma

A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of ___ occurring in association with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation.

a. 1^oC or more

b. 1^oF or more

c. 3^oC or more

d. 3^oF or more

The most severe form of HDN is associated with:

a. Anti-A

b. Anti-B

c. Anti-K

d. Anti-D

This is a diagnostic prenatal test in which a sample of the baby’s blood is removed from the umbilical cord for testing:

a. Cordocentesis

b. PUBS

c. Both

d. None of the above

Year of discovery of the T cell receptor gene:

a. 1964

b. 1974

c. 1984

d. 1994

Percentage of B cells present in the circulation

a. 2-5%

b. 5-10%

c. 10-15%

d. 75-85%

a. Anaphylatoxin

b. Opsonin

c. Chemotaxin

d. Cytokine

What is the most common complement component deficiency?

a. C1

b. C2

c. C3

d. C4

Which of the following is the most common congenital immonudeficiency?

a. Severe combined immonudeficiency

b. Selective IgA deficiency

c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia

d. Common variable immunodeficiency

Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle?

a. Chronic active hepatitis

b. Primary biliary cirrhosis

c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

d. Myasthenia gravis

The most common fungal infection for AIDS patients is caused by:

a. Candida albicans

b. Cryptococcus neoformans

c. Blastomyces dermatitidis

d. Cryptosporidium parvum

This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of dengue virus infected patients as early as 1-day post onset of symptoms (DPO), and up to 18 DPO.

a. NS1

b. C

c. E

d. prM

These are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but that are absent in normal adult tissue:

a. Oncogenes

b. Sarcoma

c. Oncofetal antigens

d. Tumor specific antigen

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an ___ assay.

a. Chemical

b. Molecular

c. Enzymatic

d. Biologic

Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) is a/an ___ assay.

a. Chemical

b. Molecular

c. Enzymatic

d. Biologic

Hives and itching are under what type of hypersensitivity?

a. Type I

b. Type II

c. Type III

d. Type IV

Gamma counter uses these substances as labels:

a. Isotopes

b. Fluorochromes

c. Enzymes

d. Immune complexes

Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10% treponemes are immobilized. Interpret the result.

a. Positive

b. Negative

c. Doubtful

d. Indeterminate

When reading for a slide agglutination for Salmonella, macroscopic agglutination is graded as 25%. Interpret.

a. Non-reactive

b. Negative

c. Positive

d. 1+

Other name for “HCV RNA”:

a. Viral clade

b. Surface antigen

c. Viral load

d. Core antigen

Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:

a. HBcAg

b. HBeAg

c. Anti-HBeAg

d. Anti-HBcAg

Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated with which class of HLA?

a. Class I

b. Class II

c. Class III

d. Class IV

Which of the following activates both T and B cells?

a. Pokeweed mitogen

b. Lipopolysaccharide

c. Concanavalin A

d. Phytohemagglutinin

It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells (sRBC) for e-rosette assay:

a. CD2

b. CD4

c. CD8

d. CD12

MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY

1. Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular and club-shaped with smooth walls?

a. Fonsecaea pedrosi

b. Microsporum audouinii

c. Trichophyton rubrum

d. Epidermophyton floccosum

2. Corn meal agar test is used to identify Candida albicans through the organism’s production of:

a. Chlamydospore

b. Urease

c. Germ tube

d. Inositol

3. This presumptive test for Candida uses serum.

a. Germ tube test

b. Latex agglutination

c. Hair perforation test

d. Chlamydospore test

4. In order to demonstrate of the encapsulated yeast Cryptococcus neoformans in wet preparations of patient specimens, what should be used?

a. Methylene blue

b. India ink

c. Malachite green

d. Safranin

5. Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosis?

a. Flowerette conidia

b. Asteroid body

c. Sclerotic body

d. Germ tube

6. Rose gardener’s disease:

a. Sporotrichosis

b. Histoplasmosis

c. Coccidioidomycosis

d. Blastomycosis

7. Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus?

a. Urease medium

b. Rice agar

c. Czapek’s agar

d. Blood agar

8. Which of the following parasite larva can be isolated in sputum?

a. Paragonimus westermani

b. Entamoeba histolytica

c. Taenia saginata

d. Ascaris lumbricoides

9. The following are techniques used for detection of parasitic infection and their corresponding causative agent. Which of the following is correctly matched?

a. Harada Mori Technique and Capillaria philippinensis

b. Xenodiagnosis and Leishmania

c. Knott’s Technique and Microfilariae

d. Sellotape Method and Trichuris trichiura

10.Proper collection of a sample for recovery of Enterobius vermicularis includes collecting:

a. A 24-hour urine collection

b. A first morning stool with proper preservative

c. Capillary blood

d. A scotch tape preparation from the perianal region

11.Heart-lung migration except:

a. Roundworm

b. Whipworm

c. Hookworm

d. Seatworm

12.Diphyllobothrium latum adult resembles the adult form of:

a. Paragonimus westermani

b. Echinococcus granulosus

c. Taenia saginata

d. Spirometra

13.Second intermediate host of Paragonimus westermani:

a. Snail

b. Fish

c. Freshwater crab

d. Vegetation

14.What is a schistosomule?

a. Cercaria minus a tail

b. Cercaria minus a head

c. Metacercaria

d. Cercaria with a tail

15.The third teania spp.:

a. T. asiatica

b. T. crassiceps

c. T. taeniaeformis

d. T. saginata

16.The definitive host to Plasmodium is the:

a. Tsetse fly (Glossina)

b. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)

c. Mosquito (Female Anopheles)

d. Reduviid bug (Male Triatoma)

17.What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp. to humans?

a. Amastigote

b. Trypomastigote

c. Promastigote

d. Sporozoites

18.Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using:

a. Monkey kidney cells

b. A549 cells

c. Human embryonic fibroblasts

d. Embryonated hen’s eggs

19.It is the smallest RNA virus:

a. Enterovirus

b. Picornavirus

c. Cytomehalovirus

d. Togavirus

20.Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by:

a. Size

b. Ether stability

c. Ribonuclease treatment

d. Acid resistance

21.A medium that aids in the presumptive identification of organisms based on their appearance on the medium is called:

a. Enriched

b. Differential

c. Selective

d. Transport

22.Which of the following is a suitable transport medium for bacteria and virus?

a. Phosphate buffered sucrose (2SP)

b. Hank’s balanced salt solution

c. Eagles minimum essential medium

d. Stuart’s medium

23.Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to differentiate:

a. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

b. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.

c. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas spp.

d. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

24.Prosthetic heart valve endocarditis is most commonly caused by this staphylococcal species:

a. S. aureus

b. S. epidermidis

c. S. saprophyticus

d. S. pyogenes

25.Which Staphylococcus spp. is resistant to 5µg novobiocin?

a. S. aureus

b. S. epidermidis

c. S. saprophyticus

d. S. pyogenes

26.In the β-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method, which of the following indicates a positive reaction?

a. Production of acid

b. Reduction of nitrates

c. Color change

d. Turbidity

27.The following are DNase positive, except:

a. Staphylococcus aureus

b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

c. Moraxella catarrhalis

d. Serratia marcescens

28.For the antibiotic susceptibility testing of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, how many units of bacitracin is used?

a. 10.00

b. 0.02 – 0.04

c. 5.00

d. 1.00 – 2.00

29.Characteristically, species from the genus Enterococcus are:

a. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl

b. Bile esculin positive

c. Relatively sensitive to penicillin

d. Sodium hippurate negative

30.A positive Quellung test is:

a. Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen

b. Visible only by fluorescent light

c. From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction

d. Oxidation but not fermentation

31.A medical technologist cultured a specimen from a suspected cystic fibrosis patient. After 24 hours of incubation, the MT noticed colonies which were spreading and flat, with serrated edges and a metallic sheen. There was a characteristic corn taco-like odor. Identify the bacteria.

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae

b. Escherichia coli

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

32.Serratia strains are readily differentiated from Klebsiella on the basis of their:

a. Failure to produce gas from inositol

b. Slowness and reluctance to ferment lactose

c. Rapid gelatin liquefaction

d. All of the above

33.Diagnosis of typhoid fever can be confirmed best by culture of:

a. Stool

b. Urine

c. Bone marrow

d. Blood

34.Cultures of Staphylococcus supplies which of the following for cultures of Haemophilus?

a. III factor

b. I factor

c. X factor

d. V factor

35.String test is used for the diagnosis of which bacteria?

a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

b. Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

c. Vibrio cholerae

d. Campylobacter jejuni

36.Which diphtheroid has the same morphology as Corynebacterium diphtheriae on blood agar plate (BAP)?

a. C. ulcerans

b. C. minutissimum

c. C. jeikeium

d. C. urealyticum

37.Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis by:

a. Growth rate

b. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests

c. Hydrolysis of Tween 80

d. Catalase test at 68^oC

38.Woolsorter’s disease is caused by the ___ form of anthrax.

a. Gastrointestinal

b. Cutaneous

c. Pulmonary

d. Urinary

39.Which anaerobic, gram-positive rods produce terminal “lollipop” spores?

a. Clostridium tetani

b. Eubacterium lentum

c. Clostridium butyricum

d. Bacteroides ureolyticus

40.In water bacteriology, the following are used as confirmatory test media except:

a. Lactose broth

b. Endo agar

c. Eosin methylene blue agar

d. Brilliant green lactose broth

Medical Technology Board Examination Review Notes Mock Examination

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

HEMATOLOGY

HISTOTECHNIQUES AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS

IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY & BLOOD BANKING

FORWARD GROUPING

REVERSE GROUPING

MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY

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