|
A mature virus particle
containing a nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein coat, with or without
envelope, is called: |
VIRION |
|
Viruses are characterized
by the presence of: |
DNA AND RNA |
|
What is the largest DNA
virus? |
POXVIRUS |
|
Which is the smallest RNA
virus? |
ENTEROVIRUS |
|
What is the first step in
the replication cycle of a virus? |
ATTACHMENT AND PENETRATION |
|
The virus capsid morphology
is: |
HELICAL OR ICOSAHEDRAL |
|
From what part of the virus
is the envelop acquired? |
NUCLEAR OR CYTOPLASMIC
MEMBRANE |
|
Where is the site of virion
assembly? |
NUCLEUS OR CYTOPLASM |
|
Which of the following is a
DNA virus? |
HERPESVIRIDAE |
|
Which of the following is
an RNA virus? |
PSEUDOMYXOVIRIDAE |
|
Specimens collected for
virus isolation should be kept at: |
4C |
|
At what temperature should
clinical specimens suspected of containing viruses kept for transport that
takes days? |
-70C |
|
In what family of viruses,
after primary infection, does an individual become latently infected and then
the infection can be reactivated? |
HERPESVIRIDAE |
|
Cytomegalovirus isolation
is best accomplished using: |
HUMAN EMBRYONIC FIBROBLASTS |
|
Which of the following
viruses causes acute central nervous system disease in humans and animals? |
RABIES |
|
What specimen/s should be
collected from a patient with suspected enteroviral meningitis? |
STOOL, THROAT SWAB, CSF |
|
Influenza A viruses can be
detected in cell cultures by: |
HEMADSORPTION ASSAY |
|
The best host systems for
influenza virus isolation are: |
MONKEY KIDNEY CELLS AND
EMBRYONATED HEN’S EGGS |
|
What common antigen is
cross-reactive in all human adenoviruses? |
HEXON |
|
The following
characteristics are similar in both influenza and parainfluenza viruses |
HELICAL SYMMETRY, LIPID
ENVELOPE, BUDDNG AND CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE |
|
Myxoviridae virus envelope
contains both: |
NEURAMINIDASE AND
HEMAGGLUTININ |
|
Eosinophilic cytoplasmic
inclusions are elemtary bodies of the: |
POXVIRUS |
|
German measles is caused
by: |
RUBELLA VIRUS |
|
What is an alastrim
infection? |
MILD FORM OF SMALLPOX |
|
Which of the following procedure
is routinely used for the detection of Hepatitis B virus (HBV) in blood
donors? |
SOLID-PHASE RIA AND ELISA |
|
Which of the following
laboratory procedures is the most rapid method for diagnosis of a virus
infection? |
DIRECT ELECTRON MICROSCOPY |
|
What specimens should be
collected from a patient with suspected influenza? |
THROAT SWAB |
|
What virus group contains a
double stranded, segmented RNA genome? |
REOVIRUS |
|
Enterovirus can be
differentiated from rhinoviruses by: |
ACID RESISTANCE |
|
What virus is the most
frequent cause of gastroenteritis in children during the winter months? |
ROTAVIRUS |
|
All of the following groups
of viruses are resistant to ether treatment except: |
HERPESVIRUSES |
|
The most common method for
rapid electron microscopy examination is: |
NEGATIVE STAINING |
|
Various virus groups can be
differentiated in negative stained specimens by their: |
MORPHOLOGY |
PARASITOLOGY QUESTIONS
|
The
motile, reproducing stage, feeding stage of the Protozoa is: |
TROPHOZOITE |
|
Which
of the following amoeba has chromatoid bodies in the cyst stage? |
ENTAMOEBA |
|
Amebiasis
is caused by |
E.
HISTOLYTICA |
|
Which
of the following organs of the body is most often involved in extraintestinal
amebiasis? |
LIVER |
|
Which
of the following is characteristic of true amebiasis? |
-
PERIPHERAL CHROMATIN ON THE NUCLEAR BODY -
CHROMATIN BODIES IN THE CYST -
INCLUDE PATHOGENS AND NONPATHOGENS |
|
Which
of the following is a true ameba? |
E.
HARTMANNI |
|
Amebae
that inhabits the gastrointestinal tract of man are nonmotile, nonfeeding,
and infective during which stage? |
CYST |
|
Mature
cysts of E. polecki have how many nuclei? |
1 |
|
Which
of the following has cysts with chromatoid bodies that have two pointed ends
or that can be round, triangular or oval? |
E.
COLI |
|
Trophozoites
of Entameoba histolytica have the following characteristics: |
-
SMALLL, DELICATE NUCLEAR CHROMATIN -
FINE, EVEN, PERIPHERAL CHROMATIN -
PROGRESSIVE MOTILITY WITH HYALINE, FINGER-LIKE PSEUDOPODS |
|
Which
of these trophozoites, when acting as a pathogen, is likely to ingest red
blood cells of the host? |
E.
HISTOLYTICA |
|
The
point of differentiation between Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba
hartmanni is? |
SIZE |
|
The
mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica has how many nuclei? |
FOUR |
|
Failure
to find bacteria in purulent spinal fluid should alert one to find the possibility
of an infection with? |
AMEBAE |
|
Which
trophozoite is distinguished by the possession of achromatic granules
surrounding its karyosomal chromatin? |
I.
BUTSCHLII |
|
Which
of the following would have double-walled, wrinkled cyst form? |
A.
CASTELLANII |
|
A
cyst that possesses a single nucleus and a large glycogen vacuole that stains
deeply with iodine belong to: |
I.
BUTSCHLII |
|
Some
amebae have spiny, hyaline extensions called: |
ACANTHOPODS |
|
Which
are the best staining procedures for species of Naegleria and Acanthamoeba? |
H&E AND WRIGHT’S STAIN |
|
Amebae
inhabiting the central nervous system enter the body through? |
NASAL
MUCOSA |
|
In
which specimen are Acanthamoeba and Naegleria usually found? |
CEREBROSPINAL
FLUID |
|
Naegleria
has which of the following characteristics |
-
FOUND IN THE BRAIN -
TROPHOZOITE CAN ASSUME A LIMAX FORM -
TROPHOZOITE CAN BECOME AN AMEBA FLAGELLATE |
|
The
trophozoite whose karyosomal chromatin appears as a rosette of 4-6 granules
is identified as: |
N.
FOWLERI |
|
Which
of the following are often mistaken for cysts of amebae? |
BLASTOCYSTIS
HOMINIS |
|
Intestinal
flagellates are usually which shape in the trophozoite stage? |
PEAR-SHAPED |
|
Which
of the following is pathognomonic for G. lamblia and the stage it is found
in? |
VENTRAL
SUCKING DISK- TROPHOZOITE |
|
Which
of the following protozoa have an undulating membrane? |
TRICHOMONAS,
TRYPANOSOMA |
|
Infections
with D. fragilis can show which of the following symptoms? |
DIARRHEA ABDOMINAL
DISCOMFORT WITHOUT DIARRHEA ASYMPTOMATIC |
|
What
does D. fragilis have in common with T. vaginalis? |
NEITHER
HAS CYST FOR |
|
Which
flagellate can be a pathogen of small intestines? |
GIARDIA |
|
Which
intestinal flagellate trophozoite has a sucking disk, 2 nucleo, 8 flagella
and an axostyle? |
G.
LAMBLIA |
|
Red
and white blood cells in stool specimens are characteristic of? |
BACILLARY
DYSENTERY |
|
A
pear-shaped flagellate with jerky motility that is found in a urine specimen
is identified as? |
T.
VAGINALIS |
|
Eighty
percent of the trophozoites of D. fragilis have? |
2
NUCLEI |
|
The
only bilaterally symmetrical protozoan is? |
GIARDIA |
|
Whoch
of the following is the intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates? |
LEISHMANIAL |
|
Which
of the following is the cause of African sleeping sickness? |
TRYPANOSOMA |
|
Which
of the following is the vector of African sleeping sickness? |
TSETSE
FLY |
|
Which
species of Trypanosoma is the cause of Chagas disease? |
CRUZI |
|
Which
of the following is characteristic of the trypanosome form of Trypanosoma
cruzi? |
PROMINENT
KINETOPLAST C-SHAPED THICK
ORGANISM |
|
Which
specimen would be suitable for a demonstration of the trypanosomes of
sleeping sickness? |
BLOOD FLUID
FROM LYMPH NODE CSF |
|
The
extracellular form of Trypanosoma is a slender organism characterized by an
undulating membrane and a free flagellum that arises: |
POSTERIORLY
FROM THE KINETOPLAST |
|
Which
of the following is found within the reticuloendothelial cells? |
L.
DONOVANI H.
CAPSULATUM T.
GONDII |
|
How
is the Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted? |
BITE
OF REDUVIID BUG |
|
A
chagoma is a lesion deen in infections with: |
TRYPANOSOME
CRUZI |
|
Which
organism is the cause of kala-azar? |
L.
DONOVANI |
|
In
the laboratory diagnosis of L. donovani, which is the preferred specimen in
which to find Leihman-Donovan bodies? |
BONE
MARROW |
|
Which
of the following is the only ciliate that is pathogenic in humans? |
B
COLI |
|
A
very large cyst whose double wall encloses a ciliated organism with one
visible nuclei would be: |
ACQUIRED
BY ACCIDENT BY MAN, SINCE IT CUSTOMARILY INFECTS SWINE |
|
Which
of the following structures are used for the motility of Balantidium coli? |
CILIA |
|
Which
nucleus in the trophozoite of Balantidium coli is the reproductive one? |
MICRONUCLEUS |
|
Conjugation
of trophozoites of Balantidium coli never occurs between: |
SAME
SIZE ORGANISMS |
|
The
definitive host (vector) to Plasmodium is the: |
FEMALE
ANOPHELES MOSQUITO |
|
Which
of the malarial organisms presents as pale, very ameboid ring trophozoites,
infecting a large pale red blood cell with dots of hemoglobin? |
P.
VIVAX |
|
Which
of the malarial organisms preferentially invades reticulocytes? |
P.
VIVAX |
|
The
malarial organism whose schizont resembles a “fruit pie” in which the
merozoite form a rosette around the malarial pigment is: |
MALARIAE |
|
The
malarial organism characteristically has a band form trophozoite stretching
across the red blood cell? |
P.
MALARIAE |
|
The
gametocyte of Plasmodium falciparum can be differentiated from that of other
malarial species by? |
SHAPE |
|
In
which type of malaria can Ziemann’s stippling be found? |
MALARIAE |
|
In
which type of malaria can Maurer’s dots be found? |
P.
FALCIPARUM |
|
Which
malarial organism has large, coarse, red dots with a large, pale red blood
cell with fimbriated edges? |
P.
OVALE |
|
The
sexual reproduction cycle in Plasmodiu, and Coccidia is referred to as: |
SPOROGONY |
|
What
is the infective stage of the malarial parasite to the vector? |
GAMETOCYTE |
|
What
is the infective stage of the malarial parasite to humans? |
SPOROZOITES |
|
In
which type of malaria is there synchronized rupture of the red blood cells
every 72 hours? |
MALARIAE |
|
In
falciparum malaria, there may be a sudden massive intravascular hemolysis
producing hemoglobinuria. This is called: |
BLACKWATER
FEVER |
|
Which
hemoglobin is incompatible with malarial parasite survival? |
HB-SS |
|
What
is the name of the laboratory test that allows laboratory bred reduviid bugs
to feed on patients suspected of having Chagas’ disease? |
XENODIAGNOSIS |
|
Human
are infected with Babesia by: |
BITE
OF TICKS BLOOD
TRANSFUSION |
|
If
immature oocysts of Isospora belli are found in stool specimens from infected
humans, what should be done with the specimen for identification? |
LEAVE
AT ROOM TEMPERATURE |
|
What
stage of Isospora is infective to humans? |
OOCYSTS |
|
Isospora
belli immature oocysts contain/s: |
SPOROBLAST |
|
Infective
oocysts of Isospora belli contain: |
SPOROZOITES |
|
The
demonstration of retinochoroiditis and cerebral calcifications in a newborn
would result in which of these laboratory requests: |
TITER
OF TOXOPLASMA ANTIBODIES |
|
What
is both the definitive and intermediate host of Toxoplasma gondii: |
CAT |
|
What
is the appearance of Toxoplasma gondii in tissue fluids of man? |
CRESCENT |
|
What
constitutes a positive result in the Sabin-Feldman dye test? |
TOXOPLASMA
LOSES ITS AFFINITY FOR METHYLENE BLUE DYE |
|
Which
of the following tests is used for the detection of Cryptosporidium? |
SHEATHER’S
SUGAR FLOATATION |
|
Which
of the following parasites poses a particular hazard for immunodeficient or
immunosuppressed individuals? |
CRYPTOSPORIDIUM,
GIARDIA, STRONGYLOIDES |
|
Which
of the followi0ng parasites is associated with AIDS? |
CRYPTOSPORIDIUM |
|
Which
operculated ovum contains a miracidium and can appear in sputum, often
accompanied by blood and Charcot-Leyden crystals? |
PARAGONIMUS
WESTERMANI |
|
Which
of the schistosomes may be recovered in rectal biopsy? |
SCHISTOSOMA
MANSONI AND SCHISTOSOMA JAPONICUM |
|
The
scientific name of the head of a tapeworm is: |
SCOLEX |
|
Which
of the following worms have an oral and ventral shaped sucker in the adult
stage? |
TREMATODES |
|
Which
of the following are hermaphroditic? |
FLUKES
AND ROUNDWORMS |
|
Which
of the following is the first intermediate host of the flukes? |
SNAIL |
|
The
common names for the schostosomes is: |
BLOOD
FLUKES |
|
What
is the common name for Clonorchis sinensis? |
CHINESE
LIVER FLUKE |
|
What
is a schistosomule? |
CERCARIAE
MINUS TAIL |
|
The
beef tapeworm is the common name for? |
T.
SAGINATA |
|
Which
tapeworm proglottid makes its way across the fecal specimen by doubling
movements, and is seen under the microscope to have numerous regular uterine
branches (more that 15) resembling those of a tree? |
T.
SAGINATA |
|
Which
of the following has an unarmed scolex? |
BEEF
TAPEWORM |
|
Which
species of Taenia has 7 to 12 uterine branches? |
T.
SOLIUM |
|
A
hexacanth embryo enclosed in a radially striated shell belongs to the genus |
TAENIA |
|
Which
tapeworm infection has to be treated with great care so that man does not
acquire the larval infection: |
TAENIASIS
SOLIUM |
|
A
bile stained egg that is 75 microns at its greatest diameter and contains a
hexacanth embryo that lacks polar knobs or filaments is that of: |
H.
DIMINUTA |
|
The
“dwarf” tapeworm is another name for: |
H.
NANA |
|
The
eggs of Echinococcus granulosus are found in the feces of: |
DOGS |
|
Which
of the following is found in the intermediate host of Echonococcus
granulosus? |
HYDATID
CYST |
|
Hydatid
cyst infection of man is due to a larva of the tapeworm: |
E.
GRANULOSUS |
|
The
first intermediate host of Diphylloborhrium latum is: |
COPEPOD |
|
The
second intermediate host of Diphylloborhrium latum is: |
FRESHWATER
FISH |
|
What
is the infective stage of the broad fish tapeworm to humans? |
PLEROCERCOID |
|
The
eggs of this tapeworm are developed and have an operculum at one end and a
small abopercular knob at the other end. The tapeworm is: |
D.
LATUM |
|
In
some individuals, particularly those of Scandinavian extraction, this worm
can cause megaloblastic anemia. |
D.
LATUM |
|
Which
of the following worms have separate sexes |
BLOOD
FLUKES |
|
The
male roundworm is differentiated from the female roundworm by its: |
DORSALLY
CURVED POSTERIOR |
|
The
best way to demonstrate a pinworm infection is by which of the following
techniques? |
CELLOPHANE
TAPE PREPARATION |
|
The
gravid female of Enterobius vermicularis deposits her embryonated eggs: |
ON
THE PERIANAL SKIN |
|
Eggs
that average 60 microns in lenghth, are oval with one flattened side, and
contain a motile larva, are those of: |
E.
VERMICULARIS |
|
Eggs
that are bile-stained and have clear polar plugs belong to the: |
WHIPWORM |
|
Which
of the following nematodes does NOT have a free-living state: |
E.
VERMICULARIS |
|
Whicj
stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective to humans? |
EMBRYONATED
EGG |
|
Where
does the larva of Ascaris lumbricoides go after it hatches In the small
intestines? |
MIGRATES
THROUGH THE BLOOD, LIVER, LUNGS, PHARYNX, AND THEN BACK TO THE SMALL
INTESTINES |
|
If
an Ascaris egg lacks its bile-stained mamillated coat, we refer to the egg
as: |
DECORTICATED |
|
Trichuris
trichiura, hookworm and ____ form the “unholy three” of roundworms: |
A.
LUMBRICOIDES |
|
Which
of the following organisms caused infections where the larvae migrate into
the lymphatics and blood, lung, alveoli, bronchiolus, pharynx, and then the
small intestines: |
N.
AMERICANUS, A. DUODENALE S.
STERCOLARIS |
|
Which
of the following is characteristic of the eggs of hookworms? |
AN
EMBRYO I0N THE TWO-TO-EIGHT CELL STAGE OF CLEAVAGE OVA,
THIN SHELL CLEAR
SPACE BETWEEN SHELL AND EMBRYO |
|
The
helminth that induces a hypochromic microcytic anemia in its host is the: |
HOOKWORM |
|
The
rhabtidiform larva of the hookworm has a: |
LONG
BUCCAL CAVITY EQUAL TO THE WIDTH OF THE BODY |
|
Which
of the following larval worms enters the host by penetration of the skin? |
S.
STERCORALIS; A. DUODENALE; N. AMERICANUS |
|
A
roundworm that ingabits the small intestine and usually is demonstrated as
rhabditiform larvae in the fecal specimen is the: |
THREADWORM |
|
Muscle
biopsy is a diagnostic technique employed to detect: |
TRICHINOSIS |
|
Which
of the following roundworms give birth to her young: |
WUCHERERIA;
MANSONELLA; BRUGIA |
|
A
viviparous female nematode: |
PRODICE
LIVING LARVAE |
|
One
of the differential characteristics of the microfilariae is the presence or
absence of: |
A
SHEATH |
|
Adults
of filarial worms live in: |
LYMPHATICS
AND SUBCUTANEOUS TISSUE |
|
One
of the pathological findings in infestations of Wuchereria is: |
ELEPHANTIASIS |
|
The
intermediate host of the guinea worm is the: |
COPEPOD |
|
Dirofilaria
immitis is the: |
DOG
HEARTWORM |
|
Dracunculus
infections cause ulcers that: |
ON
CONTACT WITH WATER, RELEASE LARVAE |
|
Which
of the following microfilariae does NOT have a sheath |
MANSONELLA |
|
Which
of the following is the eye worm |
LOA |
|
Cutaneous
larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by: |
FILARIFORM
LARVAE OF DOG HOOKWORM |
|
Which
of the following causes a chronic cough, pulmonary and artery obstruction but
no invasion of the heart in humans? |
DIROFILARIA
IMMITIS |
|
Which
of the following is caused by the ingestion of snails by humans? |
RAT
LUNGWORM |
|
Cercarial
dermatitis, commonly known as swimmer’s itch, is caused by: |
CERCARIAE
OF SCHISTOSOMES |
|
What
is the scientific name of the body of a tapeworm |
STROBILA |
|
The
gravid segments of a tapeworm are filled with: |
EGGS |
|
A
six-hooked embryo is known as: |
HEXACANTH |
|
“Ground
itch” occurs in infections of hookworms ate the: |
SITE
OF LARVAL PENETRATION OF THE SKIN |
|
Direct
examination of stool specimens stained with iodine makes the trophozoite of
the Protozoa stain what color? |
TROPHOZOITES
ARE DESTROYED BY IODINE |
|
What
color does the cytoplasm of protozoan cysts stain in an iodine wet stool
preparation: |
YELLOW-BROWN |
|
What
color do chromatin bodies of protozoan cysts stain in an iodine wet stool
preparation: |
DO
NOT STAIN |
|
What
is the advantage of the sedimentation method of concentrating stool
specimens? |
ALL
EGGS WILL SEDIMENT RECOVERS
OPERCULATED EGGS FECAL
DEVRIS AND SOLUBLE MATERIAL CAN BE REMOVED |
|
Trophozoite
structures of protozoans, when stained with trichrome stain, appear: |
GLYCOGEN-
COLORLESS NUCLEUS-
RED PURPLE CHARCOT-LEYDEN
CRYSTALS- BRIGHT RED |
|
Whem
stained with Trichrome stain, chromatiod bodies appear what color? |
BRIGHT
TO RED |
|
The
preservative to be employed with the trichrome stain is: |
POLYVINYL
ALCOHOL |
|
The
ideal temperature at which to hold a fecal specimen for more that 1 hour is: |
REFRIGERATOR
TEMPERATURE |
|
The
preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the floatation
method: |
1.18 |
|
What
type of blood specimen is preferred for preparing blood smears for protozoa |
FINGER
PUNCTURE |
|
What
will happen if the blood from a finger stick mixes with the alcohol used to
clean the area? |
“FIXES”
RBCS |
|
Thick
blood films become unsuitable for staining |
MALARIA,
BABESIA, HEMOFLAGELLATES |
|
To
detect stippling, prepare blood films venipuncture within |
30
MINUTES TO 1 HOUR AFTER BEING DRAWN |
MYCOLOGY QUESTIONS
|
Charasterictically,
fungi |
ARE
MEMBERS OF THE PLANT KINGDOM LACK
ROOTS AND STEMS LACH
CHLOROPHYLL |
|
Coenocytic
hyphae is a synonym forL |
ASEPTATE
HYPHAE |
|
Which
type of mycoses produce no cellular response by the host |
SUPERFICIAL
MYCOSES |
|
Arthroconidia
on the outside of the hair as well as hyphae within the hair shaft is called: |
ECTOTHRIX |
|
True
yeast produce which of the following in the asexual stage |
BLASTOCONIDIA |
|
Septate
hyphae have |
DIVISIONS |
|
Molds
with aseptate hyphae produce a specialized hyphal structure called a |
SPORANGIOPHORE |
|
The
basis, branching, intertwining structures of molds are referred to as: |
MYCELIUM |
|
Arthroconidia
are formed: |
DIRECTLY
FROM THE HYPHAE BY FRAGMENTATION |
|
Mycelia
within the colony that grow into the substrate are called: |
VEGETATAIVE
HYPHAE |
|
Chlamydospores
that grow within the hyphae are referred to as: |
INTERCALARY |
|
Budding
forms in which the daughter cell forms as a bud from a single mother cell or
forms laterally from a mycelium of pseudomycelium are called: |
BLASTOSPHORE |
|
Which
of the following are the result of asexual reproduction: |
ASCOSPORE |
|
Conidia
are: |
ASEXUAL
SPORES |
|
Macroconidia
are usually: |
MULTICELLULAR |
|
The
swollen portion of the conidiophores is called the: |
VESICLE |
|
Which
of the following statements does not apply to true yeasts: |
THE
EXHIBIT THERMAL DIMORPHISM |
|
Conidia
with rough or spiny surfaces are described as: |
ECHINULATE |
|
Conidia
in chains are said to be: |
CATERNATE |
|
When
preparing temporary mounts of fungal elements, why is the slide gently
heated? |
INCREASES
THE RATE OF CLEARING |
|
Which
of the following acts as a clearing agent to eliminate devris and make fungal
elements more prominent in skin, hair and nails? |
10%
KOH |
|
What
is the stain in Aman medium? |
COTTON
BLUE |
|
Which
of the following is negative stain? |
INDIA
INK STAIN |
|
In
the Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS), what colors denote the presence of glycogen? |
RED
TO VIOLET |
|
Which
of the following stains us ised for sharp delineation of fungal elements by
fluorescent microscopy? |
CALCOFLUOR
WHITE |
|
When
the fungus wall is invisible with the hematoxylin and eosin stain, which of
the following may be used to restain
the slide? |
PERIODIC
ACID-SCHIFF STAIN |
|
Fungal
elements in the acridine orange staining procedure: |
FLUORESCES
A GREEN COLOR |
|
How
does MYCOSESL medium differ from Sabouraud dextrose agar? |
CONTAINS
CHLORAMPHENICOL AND CYCLOHEXIMIDE |
|
Which
fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal
cultures? |
SABOURAUD
DEXTROSE AGAR |
|
What
is the indicator in Dermatophyte Test Medium? |
PHENOL
RED |
|
If
1% glucose is added to cornmeal agar, Trichophyton rubrum can be
differentiated from Trichophyton mentagrophytes by the production of? |
PIGMENT |
|
Fungi
should be incubated at |
25-30C |
|
How
long should fungus cultures be held before reporting as negative? |
30
DAYS |
|
Which
of the following antibiotics can be added to media for the isolation of
pathogenic fungi from contaminated materials? |
CYCLOHEXIMIDE
AND CHLORAMPHENICOL |
|
Which
of the following media stimulates the production of chlamydospores |
CORNMEAL
AGAR |
|
Which
of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus? |
CZAPEK’S
AGAR |
|
A
positive result for the hair-baiting test is: |
V-SHAPED
PENETRATION OF THE HAIR SHAFT |
|
A
tinea infection is commonly referred to as: |
RINGWORM |
|
Which
of these organisms is the usual cause of white piedra? |
TRICHOSPORON
BEIGELI |
|
Tinea
unguium is a dermatophyte infection of the: |
NAIL
PLATES |
|
The
favus type of tinea capitis is caused by which of the following? |
TRICHOPHYTON
SCHOENLEINII |
|
Which
of the following is/are anthrophilic? |
MICROSPORUM
AUDOUINII |
|
Hairs
infected with which of these dermatophytes fluoresce under Wood’s lamp? |
MICROSPORUM
CANIS |
|
Colonization
by dermatophytic fungi of the hari, nails and skin is called: |
DERMATOPHYTOSES |
|
Which
of the following fungi os/are the cause of dermatophytoses? |
EPIDERMOPHYTON;
TRICHOPHYTON, MICROSPORUM |
|
Which
of the following produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular and
club-shaped with smooth walls? |
EPIDERMOPHYTON
FLOCCOSUM |
|
Which
statement is NOT true? |
TRICHOPHYTON
RUBRUM IS NOTED FOR ITS “BALLOON” FORMS |
|
Which
of the following produces small, very slow growing colonies and has favic
chandeliers? |
TRICHOPHYTON
SCHOENLEINII |
|
Which
of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosis? |
SCLEROTIC
BODY |
|
Which
of the following are found in the yeast phase of Sporothrix schenckii on
culture medium at 37 C |
CIGAR-SHAPED
YEAST CELLS |
|
Which
of the following is the result of antigen-antibody reaction in cases of
sporotrichosis? |
ASTEROID
BODY |
|
In
older mold cultures of Sporothrix schenkii, single conidia borne aling the
sides of the hyphae are referred as: |
SLOEVE |
|
Which
of the following infections is caused by the dematiaceous saprobes that
invade organs of immunosuppressed hosts: |
PHAEOHYPHOMYCOSIS |
|
The
most common cause of mycetoma (maduramycosis) in the U.S is: |
PSEUDOALLESCHERIA
BOYDII |
|
Dematiaceous
fungi have colonies with: |
SURFACE
AND REVERSE SIDE DARK |
|
Which
of the following are a dematiaceous fungi: |
PHIALOPHORA
AND CADOSPORIUM |
|
Sclerotic
bodies are found in tissue in an infection with: |
CLADOSPORIUM |
|
Infection
of chromoblastomycosis is NOT caused by which of the following fungi? |
EXOPHIALA |
|
A
fungus that grows as a mold at 35-37 C and a mod at 25 C is described as |
MONOMORPHIC |
|
True
fungi that produce hyphae and spore forms are known as |
EUMYCOTIC |
|
Which
of the following causes an infection by hyaline saprobes that invade most
tissues or body fluids of immunosuppressed hosts? |
ASPARGILLUS;
PENICILLIUM MARNEFFEL; FUSARIUM MONLLIFORME |
|
If
you observe cleistothecia containing ascospores, report the organism as |
PSEUDOALLESCHERIA
BOYDII |
|
The
actinomycetes are vest classified as: |
FUNGUSLIKE
BACTERIA |
|
Which
of the following is anaerobic, gram-positive but not acid-fast, and does not
stain with fungal stain? |
ACTINOMYCES
ISRAELII |
|
Which
of the following has a capsule? |
CRYPTOCOCCUS
NEOFORMANS |
|
When
culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud dextrose agar, which of the following
antibiotics should not be in the medium? |
CYCLOHEXIMIDE |
|
In
the direct microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid, which of the
following can be mistaken for a lymphocyte? |
CRYPTOCOCCUS |
|
Why
does Cryptococcus neoformans produce a brown color on birdseed or staib agar? |
ASSIMILATES
CREATININE |
|
Cryptococcus
neoformans has the following biochemical reaction/s: |
UREASE
POSITIVE; INOSITOL POSITIVE; NITRATE POSITIVE |
|
Cryptococcus
neoformans latex agglutination test on spinal fluid detects cryptococcal: |
ANTIGEN |
|
Candida
albicans produces: |
BLASTOSPORES;
CHLAMYDOSPORES; PSEUDOHYPHAE |
|
Which
of the following is another name for oral candidiasis? |
THRUSH |
|
A
presumptive identification of Candida albicans can be made by checking the
ability of the organsm to produce what structure with serum? |
GERM
TUBE |
|
Cornmeal
agar plus Tween 80 is used to identify Candida albicans through the
organism’s production of: |
CHLAMYDOSPORES |
|
Geotrichum
candidum colonies appear as: |
RAPID,
YEASTLIKE GROWTH |
|
Laboratory
workers are in no danger when handling which form of dimorphic fungi? |
YEAST
FORM (TISSUE) |
|
Sepedonium
produces spiny, tuberculate macroconidia but is a: |
MONOMORPHIC
MOLD |
|
Which
of the following are produced by Geotrichum candidum? |
RECTANGULAR,
EVENLY STAINING ARTHROCONIDIA |
|
Which
of the following is/are dimorphic fungi? |
HISTOPLASMA
CAPSULATUM BLASTOMYCES
DERMATITIDIS PARACOCCIDIOIDES
BRASILIENSIS |
|
The
tissue phase if Histoplasma capsulatum, characteristically shows: |
YEAST
CELLS WITHIN MACROPHAGES |
|
The
characteristic structures of the mycelia phase of Histoplasma capsulatum are: |
TUBERCULATE
CHLAMYDOSPORES |
|
Leishmania
can be differentiated from Histoplasma because Leishmania has: |
CENTRAL
NUCLEAR MATERIAL |
|
Which
of the following tests may be sued instead of conversion when identifying
dimorphic fungi? |
EXOANTIGEN
TEST |
|
In
the mycelia form, Blastomyces dermatitidis produces: |
WIDE,
SEPTATE HYPHAE |
|
A
yeast form with as ingle broad-based bud would identify an organism as |
BLASTOMYCES |
|
The
characteristic structures of the mycelia phase of blastomycosis are: |
SMALL,
PEAR-SHAPED CONIDIA CALLED LOLLIPOPS |
|
Yeastlike
forms with multiple buds are characteristic form associated with: |
PARACOCCIDIOIDES
BRASILIENSIS |
|
Immature
spherules of Coccidiodes are differentiated from yeast forms of Blastomyces
because: |
THEY
NEVER BUD |
|
Which
of the following fungi is a major biohazard to laboratory personnel? |
COCCIDIOIDES
IMMITIS |
|
The
exoantigen test is a/an |
MICROSCOPIC
IMMUNODIFFUSION TEST |
|
In
the exoantigen test for Histoplasma capsulatum, which bands are present in a
positive result? |
H
AND/OR M |
|
Which
of the bands in the exoantigen test for Blastomyces dermatitidis is present
in a positive result? |
A |
|
Which
of the following fungi produces a spherule that is filled with endospores? |
COCCIDIOIDES
IMMITIS |
|
Zygomycosis
is caused by which of the following genera? |
MUCOR
AND RHIZOPUS |
|
Fungal
elements in zygomycosis show hyphae that are: |
BROAD
AND NONSEPTATE |
Bacteriology Questions
|
Capsules
can be used for a : |
SEROTYPING
BY SWELLING |
|
To
demonstrate capsules, grow the culture on media containing: |
ANTIBIOTICS
AND MILK |
|
The
Quellung test depends on the antigenic specificity of the: |
CAPSULE |
|
Dark
staining granules are called: |
METACHROMATIC |
|
Organisms
that vary in size and shape are referred to as: |
PLEOMORPHIC |
|
In
the bacterial growth cycle, growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or
toxic metabolic products have accumulated in the: |
STATIONARY
PHASE |
|
Which
genera of bacteria form spores: |
BACILLUS
AND CLOSTRIDIUM |
|
Bacteria
that grow in the absence of atmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain oxygen from
oxygen-containing compounds are called: |
ANAEROBES |
|
The
temperature at which bacteria grow best is known as: |
OPTIMUM |
|
A
slimy colony on blood agar medium indicates which of the following
characteristics may be present: |
ORGANISM
HAS CAPSULE |
|
On
blood agar plates a small zone of alpha hemolysis surrounded by zone of
beta-hemolysis after refrigeration is known as: |
ALPHA-PRIME |
|
When
using fractional sterilization the sequence is: |
HEATING
(KILLS VEGETATIVE BACTERIA) INCUBATION
(SPORES GERMINATE) HEATING
(KILLS THE REMAINING VEGETATIVE BACTERIA) |
|
What
is the most effective method of sterilization? |
AUTOCLAVE |
|
Which
of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven? |
BACILLUS
SUBTILIS |
|
Which
of the following filters can give 100% sterility? |
MILLIPORE
(0.22 UM) |
|
Media
that cannot be heated can be sterilized by: |
FILTRATION |
|
Which
of the following is not a disinfectant? |
70%
ALCOHOL |
|
Iodophores
are composed of iodine and? |
DETERGENT |
|
Quaternary
ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by: |
ORGANIC
MATERIAL |
|
What
is a term that describes a process or treatment that renders a medical
device, instrument, or environmental surface safe to handle? |
DECONTAMINATION |
|
What
do gram-positive bacteria stain? |
PURPLE |
|
The
mordant used in Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast is: |
HEAT |
|
How
is smear for an acid fast stain fixed? |
SLIDE
WARMER AT 65 C FOR 2 HOURS |
|
Acid
fast bacteria appear what color microscopically? |
RED |
|
Acid
fast organisms are best stained by which of the following methods? |
KINYOUN |
|
In
the Ziehl Neelsen staining method, the decolorizer is: |
ALCOHOL+HCL |
|
An
example of a negative stain is: |
INDIA
INK STAIN |
|
Which
of the following is not a gram negative? |
CAMPYLOBACTER |
|
If
a patient is taking antimocrobials, which of the following can neutralize the
antimicrobials? |
THIOL
BROTH |
|
From
a bronchial washing, organisms are seen on a Gram stain, but no growth occurs
aerobically and anaerobically. This is most likely due to: |
INHIBITION
BY ANTIBIOTIC THERAPY |
|
Which
of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing? |
ANTIMICROBIAL
REMOVAL DEVICE |
|
Sodium
polyanetholsulfonate may be used as an anticoagulant in blood culture because
it: |
PREVENTS
PHAGOCYTOSIS NEUTRALIZES
THE BACTERICIDAL EFFECT OF HUMAN SERUM |
|
What
is the most abundant normal flora in throat cultures? |
ALPHA-HEMOLYTIC
STREPTOCOCCUS |
|
Why
must blood plates for throat cultures be incubated aerobically and
anaerobically when beta hemolytic strepotococci are suspected? |
SOME
MAY PRODUCE BETA HEMOLYSIS UNDER AEROBIC CONDITIONS |
|
Nasopharyngeal
swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as: |
HAEMOPHILUS
INFLUENZA NEISSERIA
BORDETELLA
PERTUSSIS |
|
Todd-Hewitt
broth is recommended for: |
CULTURE
OF BETA HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCI FOR FLUORESCENCE MICROSCOPY |
|
Phenylethyl
alcohol is used in media to: |
INHIBIT
GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIA |
|
Why
is a first morning urine specimen preferred for urine culture? |
SPECIMEN
IS MORE CONCENTRATED |
|
What
indicates vaginal or urethral contamination of urine? |
MANY
SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL CELLS |
|
On
the pour plate method for colony counts, how does the amount of agar added
affect the dilution? |
DILUTION
IS NOT AFFECTED |
|
Smears
of cerebrospinal fluid are prepared from: |
CEREBROSPINAL
FLUID SEDIMENT |
|
Smears
for CSF are usually stained with: |
GRAM
STAIN AND INDIA INK STAIN |
|
Which
of the following tests for bacterial antigen on cultures isolated from CSF is
more sensitive and faster? |
LATEX
AGGLUTINATION TESTS |
|
Staphylococcal
protein A coated with antiserum is used in which of the following serological
tests on CSF? |
COAGGLUTINATION
TEST |
