MICRO-PARA
1. How
to prepare agar plates?
a. 1/3water first
b. Pour
all agar first
c. ½
agar first
d. Pour
all water first
2. Water
bacteriology completed test?
a. Gram
neg, non-sporulating on agar slant
b. Lactose broth -Acid with gas
c. Metallic
sheen on EMB
d. Lactose
broth -Acid only
3. By
product of acetamide utilization?
a. Carbon
dioxide
b. Ammonia
4. Incubation
period for fungal development in bone marrow and CSF?
a. 14
days
b. 7
days
c. 28 days
d. 20
days
5. Microscope
for spirochetes
a. Brightfield
b. Fluorescent
c. Electron
d. Phase
contasrt
6. How
is water bacteriology reported?
a. CFU
b. Colonies/ml
c. MPN/100ml
d.
IU/ml
7. Household
bleach inactivated at?
a. 1
hour
b. 60
minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 60
seconds
8. What
is bench marking? Asked twice.
a. Interlaboratory
marketing (1st)
b. Interlaboraty
monitoring (2nd)
c. Bench
so others have space
d. Comparing results with peers
9. Gravid
segments contain?
a. Male
reproductive organ
b. Female
reproductive organ
c. Egg
d. Scolex
10. Recovered
from cestodes in stool are?
a. Filariform
larva
b. Microfilaria
c. Ova
d. Proglottids, scolex, ova
11. Enhancement
media?
a. BAP
b. Thioglycollate
broth
c. Selenite
broth
d. all
12.
Elevated cream yellow colored colonies?
a. Staphylococcus
epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus
haemolyticus
c.
Staphylococcus aureus
d. ALL
13. Optochin
test for S. pneumonia?
a. <10
mm zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
b.
>14mm zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
c. <14mm
zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
d. >16mm
zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
14. Double
zone of hemolysis?
a. C. perfringes
b. C. difficile
c. C. botulinum
d. B. cereus
15. Cause
of whooping cough?
a.
Bordetella
parapertusis
b. Bordetella pertussis
c.
Bordetella
bronchiseptica
d.
ALL
16. Test
for influenza & rubella?
a. Hemagglutination inhibition
b.
Neutralization
c.
MIT
d.
17. True
of Leptorspirosis
a. Smear
of urine sediment for diagnosis
b. Difficult to stain and look for in microscope
c. Stained
with PAPs
d. all
18. Best
Quality control in parasitology Laboratory
a. Slides with ova and adult
b. Hanging
drop from preserved stools
c. Parasitology
atlas
d. all
19. Stool
delayed for 30 minutes must be transported in
a. Stuart medium
b. Anderson
medium
c. Francis
medium
d. Saline
Mary medium
20. Undulating
membrane (MOORSE TYPE)
a.
Trichomonas
b. Euglena
c. Giardia
d.
Trypanosoma
21.
Rhabditiform
larvae: Thread worm
22.
Stool sample enrichment: Selenite broth
23.
Vinegar:
flukes can’t be killed
24. True
of schistosomiasis: Skin penetration of
cercaria in contaminated water
25.
Normal
oral flora: Viridans
26.
Common
pathogen: Group A
27.
Stool
contaminated with S. aureus what to do? Plate with MSA (7.5%NaCl)
28. 8
nuclei: Entamoeba coli.
29. Differentiate
histolytica and hartmanii: size
30. 90% cause of malaria: Falciparum and vivax
31. POCT
for dx of malaria: Falciparum, vivax, malariae
32. Dwarf:
H. nana
33. Herpesviridae-ether
sensitive
34. True
of W.bancroftii: no terminal nuclei (B. malayi yun)
35. Cutaneous
larva migrans: Ancylostoma brasilense
36. Used
in coagulase test:
a. Sheep
b.
Human
c. Goat
CC
1. What
does U stand for in Clearance = urine UxV/P? Urine Creatinine in mg/dl
2. 12
mg/dl of uric acid to mmol/l = 0.71
3. TC=200;
HDL=30; TAG=150 compute for LDL = 140mg/dl
4. Which
one is not needed in computation for LDL?
LDL = TC – (HDL + VLDL)
a. HDL
b. VLDL
c.
TAG- indirectly needed
d. TC
5. Abrupt
change to new mean in Levy Jenning’s chart
a. Dispersion
b.
Shift
c. Trend
6. Hypothyroidism
T3 and T4 uptake are?
a. Both
high
b. Both
low
c. One
is very high and one is moderately high
d. Inversely
proportional
7. Primary
hyperthyroidism with normal T4. Confirm with
a. TBG
b. TSH
c. T3
uptake
8. Chloride
and Bicarbonate relationship? Reciprocal
9. Active
male hormone? Testosterone
10. Screening
test for Cushing’s syndrome
a. Low
dexamethasone -----
b. 24
hour urine cortisol
c. All
items
d. Insulin
hypoglycaemia test
11. Hepatic
jaundice: Increase in direct and indirect bilirubin (both)
12. Cholelithiasis:
Increase in unconjugated bilirubin (increase TB > 90% is conjugated)
13. In
case of liver transplant which are monitored? Hepatic enzymes, Bilirubin,
Coagulation factos
14.
Glucose oxidase negative; Benedict’s test
positive in new born: Inborn
error of metabolism
15. TAG
has fasting 12-15 hrs (ideal- 12hrs)
16.
RACE meaning = rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish
17. <50
mg/dl alcohol level or 0.05%. What is the presumption
a. Not
under influence of alcohol
b. Presumed
to be under influence of alcohol
c. No
presumption can be done
18. Endogenous
TAG: VLDL
19. Exogenous
TAG: Chylomicrons
20.
HEPA meaning= high efficiency particulate air
21. Uricase:
Enzymatic:H202
22. Fahey
and Mancini method: Fahey
48-72 hours and sensitive
23. Convert 0.5mg/dl IgD to mmol/L: 5.0
24. pH
measurement: Potentiometry
25. Involved
in female hormones:
a. Hirsutism
b. Polycistic
ovarian dse
c. Infertility
d. All
26. pC02:
increase 3% when increase 1’ temp
27. Blood
with no anticoagulant blood glucose decreases: 7mg/dl per hour
28. Activity
depends on increase substrate concentration. Increase in substrate - - - - -for
enzyme excess: First order
kinetics
29. Rape
victims: ACP
30. Renal
threshold for glucose: 160-180mg/dl
31. Which
enzyme is the least specific?
a.
LDH
b. ALT
c. CK
d. ACP
32. Increase
in gauge of needle: decrease in bore of needle.
33. All
are true for Sodium except: for nerve impulses
34. Middle
value of date: Median
35. Frequently
seen in date: Mode
36. Total
divided by the number of populations: Mean
37. True
about continuous flow:
a. Use
of separate cuvets
b. Use
of stirring rod
c.
Continuous tubing
d. Allows
STAT
38. Differentiate
VLDL from LDL and HDL: TAG and chole content daw po (?)
39. Characteristics
of DM: Destruction of B cells (sa pancreas hindi sa immunes system ibig sabihin
nito); deficiency of insulin receptors; increase blood glucose
40. Which
of the following is not considered emergency: ans is Glycosuria
41. Measure
of substance in relation to other substance in solution: concentration
42. Color
of <350 nm
a. Red
b. Orange
c.
UV
d. Infrared
43. Newborn
screening:
a.
Blood spot test
b. Capillary
c. Venipuncture
d. Heat
at 42’c----
44. LDL
mmol/L: use TAG/2.175 ( Binigay po both friedwald and de long but friedwald ang
commonly used)
45. Variation
in basal state: exercise, diet (All of the above)
CM
1. Urinometer
steps: 1. Fill urine; 2. Place urinometer in twisting motion; 3. Read at lower
meniscus
2. Principle
of protein strip? Protein errors of indicators.
3. Stain
that best differentiates small cells and monocytic cells?
a.
PAPS
b. Gram
stain
c. Giemsa
d. NMB
4. Gives
greatest problem in refractometer?
a. bubbles
b. Cells
c. Crystals
d.
High protein
5. Same
patient voided urine thrice. Which has highest specific gravity?
a. All
have same SG
b.
30 ml
c. 100ml
d. 80ml
6. High
renin corresponds to?
a.
Low sodium and low plasma volume
b. High
potassium and low plasma volume
c. Low
aldosterone
7. Low
EPO due to:
a.
Renal disease
b. Cardiomegaly
8. Diluent
for WBC CSF Count: Acetic Acid
9. Dilute
urine effect on RBC: Swell; appears like a halo
10. Curshman
spirals
a.
Elongated crystals with Charcot Leyden
b. Spiral
microorganisms staining gram negative
11. How
much can the glomerulus filter? Less than…
a. <50kDa
b. <60kDa
c.
<70kDa
d. 7000
12. Temperature
for Total WBC CSF count: Refrigeration temp.
13. Phosphate:
Aluminum molybdate for determination
14. Fructose
in seminalysis if delayed for 2 hours: store at Freezing temp till available
for analysis
15. CaOx
Monohydrate shape: Elongated hourglass shape
16. True
about sputum
a. Normal
body fluid
b. Usually
green color
c. All
of the items
d.
From tracheo-bronchial
17. First
stage in spermatogenesis: Spermatogonia
18. For
newborn screening specimen collection: Blood spot test
19. Bilirubin
conjugated with albumin to be processed in the liver?
a.
Unconjugated
b. Conjugated
c. Direct
d. None
20. Bilirubin
measurement in amniotic fluid: Spectrophotometry
21. True
of Biosafety cabinet II: Laminar flow
22. Biohazard
symbol: Three circles arrange in a triangle connected by a circle in the middle
23. Sharps
sympol: Syringe enclosed in a circle to make it look like an “X”
24. Oligoclonal
band: Neurosyphilis not Multiple MYELOMA (common mistake)
25. Occult
blood in stool: Pseudoperoxidase activity of haemoglobin
26. Blondheim:
To differentiate myoglobin and haemoglobin
27. Principle
of protein reagent strip: Albumin accepts hydrogen ions which changes the pH
28. Ketone
reagent strip color: Purple
29. Ketone
reagent strip:
a. Acetoacetic acid and
nitroprusside
b. Acetone
and phenosuphthalein
c. All
items
d. Betahydroxybutyric
acid and ---
30. What
tell patient in collection for seminalysis: (MOORSE TYPE)
a. Abstain
for 2-3 weeks = (2-7 days)
b.
No alcohol driking
c. Place
in penicillin bottle
d.
No smoking
31. Stool
WBC differential count:
a. Polymorphonuclear
cells and Monocyte
b. Phagocytic
and non-phagocytic
c. Segmenters,
Monocytes, Eosinophils
32. Most
abundant WBC in urine: Neutrophil (?)
33. Best
indicator for urinary bladder infection: Neutrophil
34. Indicator
for Acute tubular necrosis:
a. Brown
cast
b. >1000WBC
c.
Renal cell- renal tubular epithelial cells
d. Hemoglobinuria
35. Most
significant cell: Renal cell (RTE)
36. Blood
in peritoneal fluid
a. TB
peritonitis
b. Malignancy
37. Least
significant to most significant cast: hyaline > wbc > granular >rbc >Waxy
> broad
hyaline - rbc – granular-
wbc-Waxy
38. Cast in
athlete: Cylinduria
39. Granular
cast derived from: Cells (Apollon)
40. Associated
with Melanuria: Albinism
41. Which is
not a PPE: sharp’s container
Hematology
1. Sex
chromosome: Barr body,
2. Gray
, brown, bluish dots containing ribosomes: Basophilic stipplings
3. Associated
with lead poisoning: Basophilic stipplings
4. Wintrobe
tube: 115 mm long 3 mm internal bore
5. Tilt
tube test size of test tubes: 75x10mm
6. Average
life span of platelets: 10 days
7. Not
true cell which fragments only from the mother cell in the bone marrow?
a. Erythrocyte
b. Leukocyte
c.
Thombocyte ans
d. All
8. Computations
for corrected WBC count (2 questions)
9.
When is nRBC considered significant? 5nRBC present
10. Vitamin
K dependent (asked twice): 2,7,9,10
11. >30
x 10^9 WBC: Dilute at 1:200
12. 0.1
to 30x10^9: Dilute at 1;20
____
13.
Patient is bleeding while being
treated with thrombolytic infusion something.
Blood results
of blood taken DURING infusion (heparin)
PTT: Very
Prolong.
Fibrinogen:
Very Low. What is the most likely
disease?
a. Hypofibrinogenemia
b. Hyperplasminemia
c. Liver and kidney disease
d.
DIC ans
14. Stem
cell to blast: 3-5 days. Life span in circulation: 121 days. What cell?
a. Monocyte
b.
Erythrocyte ans
c. Lymphocyte
d. Basophil
15. Stem
cell to blast: 5. Life span in tissue: 10 days. What cell?
a.
Monocyte an
b. Erythrocyte
c. Lymphocyte
d. Basophil
16. Patient
is bleeding while being treated with thrombolytic infusion something.Blood
results of blood taken BEFORE heparin
PTT: Prolong.
Fibrinogen: Very low
a.
Hypofibrinogenemia
b.
Hyperplasminemia
c.
Liver and Kidney disease
d.
DIC
17.
Bone marrow smear is prepared
by:
a.
Crush
b.
Concentrate
c.
Particulate
d. All ans
18.
How to make good smear?
a.
Smooth and rapid
b. Smooth ans
c.
Slow
d.
Rapid
19. What
can be made with automated smear maker?
a.
Wedge ans
b. Cover
slip
c. All
20. Failure to create secondary enzymes: Pelger
huet
21. Hyposegmentation:
Pelger huet
22.
FAB classification of acute
myeloblastic leukemia WITHOUT maturation = M1
23. Differentiate ALL from AML in that ALL is:
Negative to both esterase and peroxidise
24. Differentiate
CML from leukemoid
a. Basophils
present
b.
LAP score of more than 100
25. Grading
of codocytes 20-50/oif: +3
26. MCV
<85; MCHC <31
a. Macrocytic,
normochromic
b.
Microcytic, hypochromic ans
c. Normo,normo
d. Marco,
hypo
27. Increase
in WBC:
a. Strenuous
exercise
b. Emotions
c. Crying
d. All
ans
ISBB
1. Gel
technology centrifuge time: 10 minutes
2. If
three phases of Ab screen is negative, what to do: Add IgG coated cells (check cells)
3. Which
is a classification of cell (?) according to function?
a. NK
cell
b. B
cell
c. Tcell
d. All
4. CD
marker for T cells: CD4 and CD8
5. C3
has high affinity for:
a. IgM
b. IgG
6. Mycetoma
& “Black lung?”: Aspergillus fumigatus
7. MHC
lymphotoxicity microscope used: Phase contrast microscope
8. Deficiency
in C3: Disease of the kidney (presumed to be AGN)
9. Enzyme
present in neutrophil but absent in monocyte?
a. Peroxidise
b. ALP
c. ACP
10. All
has end stage except?
a. Monocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Eosinophil
11. Penicillin
(Anti-penicillin): Type II hypersensitivity
12. Associated
with hairy cell leukemia?
a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-2
13. Antibody
is to Antigen; Immunogen is to Immunoglobulin
14. Ragocytes:
Rheumatoid Arthritis
15. Circulating
in Rheumatoid arthritis: Rheumatoid factor
16. Paternity
testing: dna testing
17. To
differentiate ABO & Rh HDN: Amniotic fluid O.D
18. Amniotic
fluid, bilirubin: Spectrophotometry
19. WB
to PRBC what to do: Change label to PRBC and adjust expiration date (rationale:
becomes open system)
20.
|
Anti A |
Anti B |
Anti AB |
Cell A |
Cell B |
|
++ |
+ |
+ |
++++ |
+++ |
Possible cause?
a. Contamination
b. Cold
agglutinins
21. Emergency
and no O negative or O positive cells available. What should be given?
a. AB
negative plasma
b. Oh
Bombay blood
c. Crystalloid
22. Not
indicated for Cryoppt:
a. Hypofibrinogenemia
b. vWF
dse
c. XIII
deficiency
d. ITP
23. Mr.
Palanca is a resident in Palawan for 10 years. How many years deferral before
blood donation: 3 years ( 1 year if traveller)
24. Point
of care testing for HBSAg
a. Viral
load
b. PCR
c. Sandwich
method (inisip ko na lang po yung kit na readily available at yung principle
niya)
25. Most
number of subgroups:
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
Histopath-MT laws
1. Revocation
of license: 3/3 or unanimous
2. Suspension
of license: 2/3 or majority
3. 1
legal counsel and 2 members of board- h
Composition of tribunal who will conduct
administrative investigation
4. Members
of board are appointed by: President of Philippines
5. Most
commonly used fixative: Aldehyde
6. Fixative
for Immunohistochemistry: Osmium tetroxide and Glutaradlehyde
