1. The degree of effective erythropoiesis is best assessed by:
a. Serum iron labels
b. Hemoglobin determinations
c. Ferrokinetic studies with Fe59
d. Reticulocyte counts
2. Any turbidity in a peripheral blood specimen will result in a falsely elevated hemoglobin determination. Which of the following is NOT a potential source of turbidity?
a. Lipemia
b. Increased leukocyte counts
c. Increased level of carboxyhemoglobin
3. The following erythrocyte data were obtained from an EDTA-anticoagulated specimen: erythrocyte count = 2.84 x 1012/L, hemoglobin = 7.2 g/dL, hematocrit = 26% (0.26 L/L), calculate the MCV.
a. 25.3 fL
b. 27.7 fL
c. 65.9 fL
d. 91.5 fL
4. Which of the following is NOT a condition associated with an elevated ESR?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Polycythemia vera
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Chronic infection
5. Which stain is commonly used to perform a reticulocyte count?
a. Wright stain
b. Crystal violet
c. New methylene blue
d. Natural red
6. Which of the following is an appropriate screening test for the presence of hemoglobin S?
a. Dithionate solubility test
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
c. Heat instability test
d. Acid elution test
7. Which of the following does NOT increase the sedimentation of red cells?
a. Rouleaux
b. Poikilocytosis
c. Increased globulins
d. Low erythrocyte count
8. Which of the following is not detected by the DAT with polyspecific AHG?
a. Erythrocyte sensitization with antibodies “in vivo”
b. Erythrocyte sensitization with incomplete antibodies “in vivo”
c. Erythrocyte sensitization with complement “in vivo”
d. Erythrocyte sensitization with antibodies “in vitro”
9. The Donath-Landsteiner test is positive in:
a. PNH
b. CHD
c. PCH
d. Warm AIHA
10. A positive sucrose hemolysis test was followed by a Ham test. There was hemolysis of the patient’s cells in acidified serum. These results are indicative of:
a. G6PD deficiency
b. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
d. PNH
11. The principal test in the diagnosis of heredity spherocytosis is:
a. Autohemolysis test
b. Ham test
c. Osmotic fragility test
d. Thermal stability test
12. Which laboratory test is more appropriate screen for unstable hemoglobulin disorders?
a. Heat instability test
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
c. Osmotic fragility
d. Serum bilirubin
13. The slowest moving hemoglobin on electrophoresis at pH 8.4 is:
a. Hemoglobin A
b. Hemoglobin F
c. Hemoglobin C
d. Hemoglobin G
14. In cellulose acetate electrophoresis, hemoglobin S has the same mobility as:
a. Hemoglobin E
b. Hemoglobin F
c. Hemoglobin D
d. Hemoglobin C
15. Which of the following hemoglobin electrophoresis results is most typical of sickle cell trait?
a. 85% Hb S and 15% Hb A
b. 85% Hb F and 15% Hb S
c. 45% Hb S and 55% Hb A
d. 55% Hb F and 455 Hb S
16. The substance that will hasten the sickling of erythrocyte is:
a. Sodium oxalate
b. Sodium metabisulfite
c. Sodium citrate
d. Sodium phosphate
17. Hemoglobin S and D can be differentiated by which test?
a. Autohemolysis test
b. Acid serum test
c. Hemoglobin electrophoresis at pH 8.6
d. Solubility test
18. Increased osmotic fragility could be expected in which of the following disorders?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Thalassemia
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Hereditary spherocytosis
19. Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions cannot be stained and visualized with Romanowsky stain?
a. Pappenheimer bodies
b. Howell-Jolly bodies
c. Heinz bodies
d. Basophilic stippling
20. Which of the following laboratory tests is most specific for vitamins B12 or folic acid deficiency?
a. Low ferriti
b. High RDW
c. Coomb’s test
d. MCV > 105
21. Which laboratory result is most useful in distinguishing iron deficiency anemia from anemia of chronic disease?
a. Serum iron
b. MCV
c. Hemoglobin
d. Transferrin receptor
22. If a serum transferring receptor assay were performed on an iron deficient individual, what would you expect the result to be:
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Normal
d. AOTA
23. The electrical impedance principle is based on the fact that:
a. Blood cells are good conductors of electricity
b. Blood cells are poor conductors of electricity
c. Resistance of the electrical path is decreased as the individual cells passes through the aperture
d. Blood cells have a relative density greater than that of saline
24. B-lymphocytes can be distinguished from T-lymphocytes by:
a. Morphology on Romanowsky-stained smear
b. Size of the cell
c. Monoclonal antibodies to surface antigens
d. Presence of granules
25. A manual leukocyte count was performed on an EDTA-anticoagualated specimen. The specimen was diluted 1:20 and a total of 165 leukocytes were counted in the four corner squares of the hemacytometer. What is the leukocyte count?
a. 1.3 x 109/L
b. 3.3 x 109/L
c. 4.1 x 109/L
d. 8.3 x 109/L
26. Chromosome analysis revealed the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome. What myeloproliferative disorder is present?
a. CML
b. PV
c. ET
d. MMM
27. What cytochemical stain is used to help differentiate a leukomoid reaction from CML?
a. Peroxidase
b. New methylene blue
c. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
d. Perl’s Prussian blue
28. What cytochemical stain is most useful in the differentiation of a myeloblast from a lymphoblast?
a. Periodic acid-Schiff reaction
b. Acid phosphatase
c. Myeloperoxidase
d. α-naphthyl acetate esterase
29. The esterase cytochemical stains are useful to differentiate:
a. Granulocytic from monocytic leukemias
b. Lymphocytic leukemias from myelocytoc leukemias
c. Monocytic leukemias from megakaryocytic leukemias
d. Lymphocytic leukemias from monocytic leukemias
30. A leukomoid reaction may be distinguished from chronic myelocytic leukemia by:
a. The total leukocyte count
b. The presence or absence of immature neutrophils
c. Chromosome studies
d. The presence or absence of anemia
31. Which of the following stains is not useful in the differentiation of acute myelogenous leukemia from acute lymphocytic leukemia?
a. Chloracetate esterase stain
b. Sudan black B stain
c. Myeloperoxidase stain
d. Periodic acid-Schiff stain
32. Based on the results obtained from the evaluation of a leukocyte alkaline phosphatas (LAP) stain, what is the total LAP score?
Cell Rating
|
Number of Cells Counted
|
0
|
35
|
1+
|
40
|
2+
|
20
|
3+
|
5
|
4+
|
0
|
a. 65
b. 75
c. 95
d. 130
33. The niroblue tetrazolium test would be most useful in detecting:
a. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Chronic granulomatous disease
d. Niemann-Pick disease
34. Heterophil antibodies found in infectious mononucleosis are absorbed by:
a. Beef erythrocytes but not guinea pig kidney cells
b. Both beef erythrocytes and guinea pig kidney cells
c. Neither beef erythrocytes and guinea pig kidney cells
d. Guinea pig kidney cells but not beef erythrocytes
